Why do you suppose this passage is in the Gospel in the first place? (see Jn 20:31) Why do you suppose it goes on to say, "and his disciples began to believe in him" (Jn 2:11) as a result of this miracle?
The Greek text does not at all bear the interpretation that Jesus was "grieved" by his mother. The Greek says "Woman, what is this to me and to you?" It's a Semitic expression that basically means, "Why are you involving me in this?" It's not a rebuke.
It certainly is a rebuke.
They were guests are the wedding. It was not their place to do something about the situation.
“Why are you involving me in this?” It’s not a rebuke.
4 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? mine hour is not yet come.
That is not a big deal and I am not trying to make Mary any less than what she was, I just do not see how it makes Mary an authority.
According to scripture Jesus is the only begotten son of God.
John 14
6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
Jesus is the only authority, why bother to preserve scripture which came from the son of God if we can add to it? even if what we are adding seems to be true or actually is true.
I may agree with much of what some one says but if it is not plain from scripture you have an argument.
Like the book of Genesis, the book of Luke is allegorical...
There, fixed it for you. NOWHERE in the Greek is the word "began" included. His desciples had already left their livelihoods to follow Him. If words have to be added to scripture to support a belief it's not scripture.