Posted on 05/21/2015 6:19:52 PM PDT by grumpa
There is much confusion in Christianity today surrounding the milieu of biblical eschatology. Specifically, there is widespread misunderstanding about the nature and timing of Jesus’ coming, arrival or presence (parousia in Greek). In popular preaching and imagination, it’s often called his “second coming” or “return.” Many life-long Jesus-followers are surprised to learn that these are not terms found in the Bible – and then to consider how these terms affect our thinking on just what this all means.
But the rabbit-hole goes even deeper: What if the confusion about Jesus’ coming reaches even farther back, to a more basic misunderstanding about what a ‘coming of God’ really was in the first place? What was a coming of God according to the Hebrew Scriptures?
In this series, I’d like to try and shed some light on this concept of a ‘coming of God,’ and why it matters to us today.
Before looking at what a ‘coming of God’ is according to the Hebrew Scriptures (Old Testament), let’s see if Jesus fit the pattern of a ‘coming of God’. Did Jesus come when, and to whom, he said he would come? Can we show that Jesus kept his promise to come again, in the glory of his Father, to his first-century believers?
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And you're invited to post the entire thing here, rather than use FR to redirect traffic to your blog. Why not have that discussion here on FR?
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Preterist alert
Was Riley an O’Brien before she married Powell?
“There is much confusion in Christianity today surrounding the milieu of biblical eschatology...it’s often called his “second coming” or “return.” Many life-long Jesus-followers are surprised to learn that these are not terms found in the Bible.”
Where do you find the term “Christianity” in the Bible?
There are NO ENGLISH WORDS in the Holy Scriptures!! None! So any argument that starts with this premise is nonsense.
So what’s your take on Paul’s instruction to Timothy, “Hold fast the pattern of sound words which thou hast heard from me”? Since Paul never used a word of English, should we not? Since he never used an English translation, do you? If as you say, there are no English words in the Holy Scriptures, is your English translation not Holy Scripture?
Since both Jesus and his apostles used translations made by men, do you suppose it’s alright if we do, if they’re accurate renderings of the words of the original language?
If so, what words in the original languages of scripture are accurately rendered “Christianity”?
Mark 9
1 And he said to them: Amen I say to you, that there are some of them that stand here, who shall not taste death, till they see the kingdom of God coming in power.
Mathew 24
27 For as the lightning came out of the east, and shines even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
28 For wherever the carcass is, there will the vultures be gathered together.
Luke 17
20 And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation:
21 Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.
Mark 9 it was to come while many were still living.
Mathew 24:17 it was not going to come with a bang.
Mathew 24:28 There was not going to be a body for the vultures.
Luke 17:20 and 21 it is not something you can point at and say there it is, it is within you.
Hebrews 10
16 This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, says the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them;
Again, within you
Why not have that discussion here on FR?
Less controlled. More interesting.
IMHO, YMMV, "I heard it on the Internetz".
When [Jesus] had said this, as they were looking on, he was lifted up, and a cloud took him from their sight. While they were looking intently at the sky as he was going, suddenly two men dressed in white garments stood beside them. They said, “Men of Galilee, why are you standing there looking at the sky? This Jesus who has been taken up from you into heaven will return in the same way as you have seen him going into heaven.” (Acts 1:9-11)Next question.
Nice try, but Jesus is coming back to earth to judge all humanity, just as He promised.
First, I am not sure why you said that Jesus and his disciples used translations written by men. The scrolls they used were in Hebrew. The letters were in a slightly different style than the original, but this was a transliteration not a translation. In any event, Jesus is the Word incarnate so He knew them in the original, so to speak ;-).
Nice try, but Jesus is coming back to earth to judge all humanity, just as He promised.
The kingdom of God came with power on the day of Pentecost.
“I am not sure why you said that Jesus and his disciples used translations written by men.”
I’m sure that’s right, but most of the time when Jesus and the apostles quoted from the Old Testament, they quoted the Septuagint, a Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament.
Since you said that there are no English words in the Holy Scriptures, is your favorite English translation the Holy Scriptures?
The Halleluyah Scriptures www.halleluyahscriptures.com They have removed pagan words that are in most other translations and retained transliteration of the original Hebrew text. The Father’s Name YHVH is rendered in the paleohebrew pictograms just as it was in the Dead Sea Scrolls.
Another example of why women shouldn’t teach. In Acts 1, the angel said Jesus would return in the same manner He left. Did Jesus float down from the clouds in 70 AD? At the end of Revelation, John prays, “Come Lord Jesus.”
This one stopped just when it was really getting good.
Any article that includes this concept is worth ignoring and ridiculing.
If your point is that because John said this it was after AD 70, I believe you the evidence points to the fact that John wrote the Revelation prior to AD 70. Here is the internal evidence.
The book of Revelation was written while the temple was still standing. The temple and the city of Jerusalem were both completely destroyed in the year AD70, fulfilling the prophecy Jesus gave in Matthew 24 that not one stone would be left upon another (Matt 24:2). How do we know this? We know this from what the book itself says. If we look at Revelation 11:1-2 it says:
Rev 11:1 Then I was given a measuring rod like a staff, and I was told, “Rise and measure the temple of God and the altar and those who worship there, but do not measure the court outside the temple; leave that out, for it is given over to the nations, and they will trample the holy city for forty-two months.
This tells us that the temple was located in the Holy City which is Jerusalem and that it “will be” trampled on or completely destroyed over a period of forty two months. The writer did not say that it “had already been” trampled on for 42 months. We know from secular history including the writings of Josephus that this did in fact occur in the year AD70 and it did in fact take a period of 42 months for it to occur, thus fulfilling the prophecy herein written. Since we realize that it would have been impossible to measure the temple unless it was still standing, we see that verse 11 gives us the time frame. Verse 12 confirms it by stating that this temple would be trampled for a period of 42 months, precisely coinciding with the record of secular history.
This passage is paralleled in Luke 21:24 where Jesus himself says:
Luk 21:24 They will fall by the edge of the sword and be led captive among all nations, and Jerusalem will be trampled underfoot by the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles are fulfilled.
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