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To: vladimir998
But when Elizabeth calls Mary the mother of her Lord it means exactly the same thing as mother of God. There was only one Lord.

Why didn't she say the "mother of her God" then vs "mother of her Lord"?

As there is one Lord, there is one God.

Elizabeth knew exactly what she meant by her statement.

You're attempting to read something into the text that's not there.

179 posted on 08/18/2015 11:28:50 AM PDT by ealgeone
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To: ealgeone

Being a good Jewish woman, Elizabeth would never have dared to utter the tetragrammaton in full. She said Adonai, which translates Kyrios.


181 posted on 08/18/2015 11:32:58 AM PDT by Romulus
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To: ealgeone

“You’re attempting to read something into the text that’s not there.”

Nope. Even Protestants get this: “Elisabeth confessed faith already in the person of Jesus, for she noted that Mary bore the God-man (mother of my Lord).” Footnote in The Reformation Heritage KJV Study Bible for Luke 1:43.

It’s only the usual anti-Catholics who don’t get this.


183 posted on 08/18/2015 11:41:25 AM PDT by vladimir998 (Apparently I'm still living in your head rent free. At least now it isn't empty.)
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