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It is you who is in error! You speak of the teachings of the Apostle Paul on this matter? In 2 Thessalonians chapter 2 the apostle clarifies his teaching regarding the "rapture" spoken of in his earlier letter to the Thessalonians: "Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters, 2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come. 3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness[a] is revealed, the man doomed to destruction."

The "rapture" will NOT occur BEFORE the following has transpired: Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness[a] is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.

NOTE here that "that day" is a reference to the Apostle's earlier teaching in I Thess. 4, where he talks about the revelation of Jesus Christ and the "gathering together" (rapture) of his saints, (which occurs AFTER THE RESURRECTION, by the way...)

Can Paul's teaching be any clearer? This was his stated intent in this passage - to clarify regarding the "rapture." He states that the "rapture" will not happen UNTIL the "rebellion" happens and the "man of lawlessness" is revealed...

Is this what you and your fellow pre-tribs teach? NO! You insist that "the Church must be taken out of the way" before the Antichrist is revealed and begins his evil program.

I repeat - you are in error, and are as "the blind leading the blind" into theological error.

I speak as one "born & bred" into pre-tribulationism and Dispensationalism. I have studied in pre-eminent Evangelical, Dispensational colleges, and have an earned BA, MA, and PhD in Theology. I spent many years in unquestioned acceptance of the pre-trib view - that is, until I decided to examine the evidence.

I have no interest in becoming involved in "endless disputes." "Let each be persuaded in his own mind." I will only challenge you to set aside your preconceived notions and ask God to show you the truth about this teaching.

In 2 Thess 2 the definite article is used with apostasia. The verb from which that noun used in 2 Thess 2 arises is found fifteen times int he New Testament. Twelve of those fifteen refer to a departure or a happening where something is disappearing over the horizon.

There are three places where the noun apostasia appear int he New testament, the other two places, where it is used to accuse Paul of encouraging Jews to depart from the faith of Judaism have an antecedent accompanying the use. I leave you to decide what you want to believe.

The first 8 translations of the Bible from Greek translated apostasia (ἡ ἀποστασία) as 'departure' or 'the departing', as in The Departure. The Rheimes Bible changed to 'revolt', in 1582.

Have nice day.