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Keyword: doctrine

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  • Theology FAQ: What is the difference between Biblical Theology and Systematic Theology?

    03/09/2010 9:25:38 AM PST · by Gamecock · 3 replies · 54+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Biblical theology and systematic theology are two different manners of arranging the teaching of the scriptures. Biblical theology seeks to understand the progressive unfolding of God's special revelation throughout history, whereas systematic theology seeks to present the entire scriptural teaching on certain specific truths, or doctrines, one at a time. Biblical theology is thus historical and chronological in its design; and in fact, a close synonym for biblical theology, at least in its wide-angle task of accounting for all of special revelation, is the term “redemptive history”. Biblical theology is not always pursued in so broad a fashion, however; sometimes,...
  • Theology FAQs: Does the bible clearly teach pre-, a-, or postmillennialism?

    03/02/2010 7:59:21 AM PST · by Gamecock · 48 replies · 597+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    While the bible does clearly teach against the Dispensational variety of premillennialism (see questions 18-21 above), it is much more open to historic premillenialism, postmillennialism, and amillennialism. Both premillennialists and postmillennialists will look to Old Testament prophecies of a golden age of gospel success on the earth (e.g. Psalm 22:25-31; Psalm 72; Isaiah 2:1-5), and say that the nature of these prophecies requires a time in which the earth will not be in its eternal state, when no one marries or dies any more, but vastly more prosperous than it is now, when the Church is always afflicted and persecuted....
  • Theological FAQs: Is Premillennialism always dispensational?

    02/11/2010 9:14:25 AM PST · by Gamecock · 5 replies · 214+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Although premillennialism is often seen as a dispensational way of understanding Revelation 20, and while many premillennialists are in fact dispensationalists, there is nevertheless nothing about premillennialism in itself that demands dispensationalism. In fact, in early Church history, more than a thousand years before the development of dispensational theology, there was a group called the Chiliasts (from the Greek word for “thousand years”), which held to a premillennial interpretation of Revelation 20. In recent history, there have still been some premillennialists who are not dispensational, most notably George Ladd. Many of these prefer to distance themselves from dispensational theology by...
  • Theology FAQs: What is Premillennialism?

    02/10/2010 10:02:45 AM PST · by Gamecock · 13 replies · 296+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    “Premillennialism comes from a term that means, literally, “before the thousand years”. Thus, it is essentially a way of interpreting Revelation 20, which six times mentions a period of a thousand years, during which Satan is bound and believers reign with Christ. Premillennialists believe that Christ will return and establish his Kingdom on earth, and that he will be visibly present for a thousand years, reigning over all the earth in an age of peace and prosperity. Then, after this thousand-year visible reign of Christ on earth, he will quell a final rebellion, enter into his last judgment, and finally...
  • A LOOK AT THE POSSIBILITY THAT CHRISTIAN CHRISTIAN TEACHINGS HAVE ERRED ON HUMAN DESTINY.

    02/03/2010 6:04:17 AM PST · by Ken4TA · 5 replies · 332+ views
    1878 AD | Edward White
    A LOOK AT THE POSSIBILITY THAT CHRISTIAN TEACHINGS HAVE ERRED ON HUMAN DESTINY. The following argument was presented by Edward White in his classic book, Life In Christ, Chapter 7, pages 65–70; published in 1878 AD, 3rd Edition, by Elliot Stock, London, England. This 559 page book is now in the Public Domain In reproducing White’s argument, and making it more palatable to read, I have taken the liberty to substitute a few words to bring it more in-line to our American English understanding. I believe it worthy of consideration to anyone who desires to learn a little history of...
  • Theological FAQ: What is Postmillennialism?

    02/03/2010 6:03:52 AM PST · by Gamecock · 10 replies · 240+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    “Postmillennialism” comes from a term that means, literally, “after the thousand years”. Thus, it is essentially a way of interpreting Revelation 20, which six times mentions a period of a thousand years, during which Satan is bound and believers reign with Christ. Postmillennialists believe that Christ will return after a future golden age of prosperity on the earth, during which time the gospel will have been fruitful in all the world, bringing peace and security to all. Postmillennialists look to the many prophecies in the Old Testament which speak of a coming time of great blessing and prosperity (e.g. Psalm...
  • Theological FAQ: What is Amillennialism?

    01/31/2010 8:41:49 AM PST · by Gamecock · 24 replies · 487+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    “Amillennialism” comes from a term that means, literally, “no thousand years”. Thus, it is essentially a way of interpreting Revelation 20, which six times mentions a period of a thousand years, during which Satan is bound and believers reign with Christ. Amillennialists believe that there will be no future thousand-year period of time when the Kingdom of God will be visibly flourishing in the world, and the whole earth will be fruitful and at peace. Speaking symbollically like the rest of Revelation, the millennium is simply a figurative way of speaking of a long period of time that is taking...
  • Theological FAQ: Does the bible teach that there are two peoples of God, Israel and the Church?

    01/29/2010 11:55:45 AM PST · by Gamecock · 43 replies · 495+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Not only does the bible not teach that there are two distinct peoples of God, Israel and the Church, but it is very explicitly opposed to this idea. For one thing, the Church existed in the Old Testament, long before the outpouring of the Spirit on the Day of Pentecost (see Acts 7:38); and furthermore, the clear teaching of the New Testament is that the modern day Church is really just the expansion of God's people Israel. According to Paul, being an Israelite has never been based merely on outward ethnicity (Rom. 2:28-29; 9:6-8); but those who have been called...
  • Theological FAQs: ...in the end times [will] there will be a restored Jewish state...

    01/26/2010 6:21:07 AM PST · by Gamecock · 11 replies · 409+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Full title: Does the bible teach that in the end times there will be a restored Jewish state and a restored temple? In the Old Testament, the bible does indeed prophesy that Israel will be restored and a more glorious temple will be rebuilt (e.g. Amos 9:11-12; Ezekiel 40-48). The preliminary fulfillment of this prophecy came with the return from exile, and the rebuilding of the temple under Nehemiah and Ezra; however, this was just a taste, or down payment, of the ultimate fulfillment. When Jesus came to this earth, his incarnation truly brought the presence of God to the...
  • Theological FAQ: Does the bible teach a pre-tribulational rapture?

    01/23/2010 7:05:43 AM PST · by Gamecock · 37 replies · 708+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    The doctrine of a pre-tribulational rapture is not clearly taught anywhere in the scriptures, but is an inference based upon several Dispensational premises: first, that the second coming of Christ is imminent (that is, that there are no prophetic events which must precede it); second, that the “Church Age” is a parenthetical part of God's redemptive sign, and that he will one day revert to dealing with his earthly people, the Jews; and third, that the time in which he will deal with these Jews will be a seven-year period known as the Great Tribulation, which is yet to come....
  • Theological FAQ: Is Dispensationalism biblical?

    01/22/2010 3:39:47 AM PST · by Gamecock · 22 replies · 498+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    According to influential author Charles Ryrie, whose views are perhaps the most representative of popular Dispensationalism, there are three “sine qua non,” (i.e. non-negotiables) of what constitutes Dispensationalism: a doxological view of history (i.e., with the ultimate purpose of glorifying God), a literal hermeneutic (i.e. method of interpreting the bible), and an ongoing distinction between the two peoples of God, Israel and the Church. A doxological purpose for all of history is certainly not unique to Dispensationalism, however, and is affirmed by many non-Dispensational theologians; so the question of whether or not Dispensationalism is biblical must hinge on what the...
  • “Give us Faith So We’ll Be Safe:” A Theological and Pastoral Response to the Tragedy in Haiti

    01/22/2010 3:16:07 AM PST · by Gamecock · 5 replies · 241+ views
    Mike Milton ^ | MikeMilton.Org
    How do we who call ourselves followers of the Lord of Life respond to the  chilling report that “40,000 bodies have been buried and there could be 200,000 dead in Haiti.” That paralyzing news is what we heard from the report of Shepherd Smith of Fox News on this date.[1] The earthquake in Haiti that has shaken the tiny Caribbean nation to death, but is also shaking our consciences and our souls with questions. Many are asking the great existential questions about God even as the Church is already deploying people with help and hope in His Name. There are...
  • Theological FAQs: What is Dispensationalism?

    01/21/2010 3:27:25 AM PST · by Gamecock · 22 replies · 544+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Dispensationalism is a relatively modern hermeneutic, or way of interpreting the scriptures, that has roots in the teachings of John Darby, was greatly popularized by C. I. Scofield, through the notes in his study bible, became influential through the establishment of Dallas Theological Seminary and many of its professors, including Lewis Sperry Chafer and Charles Ryrie, and has been greatly sensationalized and made influential at a popular level through the fiction and dramatic predictions and interpretations of authors such as Hal Lindsey and Tim LaHaye. Today, Dispensationalism is hugely influential worldwide, having a significant impact not just on the doctrine...
  • Theological FAQs: What is the Gospel?

    01/20/2010 4:18:43 AM PST · by Gamecock · 8 replies · 209+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    The gospel is not something man made up or a well-informed opinion, but is good news directly revealed from Almighty God regarding what He has done in Jesus Christ to rescue all those who have called on His name. The Gospel is the news that Jesus Christ, the Eternal Son of God, the Righteous One, died for our sins and rose again for our justification, eternally triumphing over all his enemies, so that there is now no condemnation for those who believe. It is a declaration about what He has done, not what what we are to do. It is...
  • Theological FAQ: What does the term “analogy of faith mean?

    01/19/2010 3:23:01 AM PST · by Gamecock · 9 replies · 265+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    The “analogy of faith” is a reformed hermeneutical principle which states that, since all scriptures are harmoniously united with no essential contradictions, therefore, every proposed interpretation of any passage must be compared with what the other parts of the bible teach. In other words, the “faith,” or body of doctrine, which the scriptures as a whole proclaim will not be contradicted in any way by any passage. Therefore, if two or three different interpretations of a verse are equally possible, any interpretation that contradicts the clear teaching of any other scriptures must be ruled out from the beginning. Another related...
  • Theological FAQ: Is a grammatical-historical hermeneutic opposed to sensus plenior?

    01/18/2010 12:56:55 AM PST · by Gamecock · 18 replies · 450+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Although it is a common sentiment today to deny that a literal, grammatical-historical hermeneutic could allow for any sensus plenior in the text of scriptures, because it would violate the principle of each text having only one meaning, the simple fact is that this understanding is based more upon a naturalistic, or literalizing hermeneutic, than the grammatical-historical hermeneutic of the Church Fathers and Reformers. But more to the point, this denial of sensus plenior is in direct contradiction to the testimony of the scriptures themselves, as to how they should be read and understood. Throughout the Old Testament, the bible...
  • Calling All Christians: Honest skeptic wants to know where to tithe. (VANITY)

    01/15/2010 1:50:03 PM PST · by ROTB · 56 replies · 972+ views
    Me | 1/15/2010 | Me
    Brothers and Sisters In Christ - In my locale, there is a public place where street preaching goes on we have some regular hecklers who show up to ... make things more interesting. One of them has softened up over the years. He used to be somewhat contemptuous of Jesus, but now though still an agnostic, speaks well of Christ and Christians. He is tithing, wanting to see God reveal himself per Malachi 3:10. Question: What biblical standards exist for God to bless him abundantly in an obvious way? He wants to be sure he is not making a mistake...
  • Theological FAQ: What does the term “sensus plenior” mean?

    01/14/2010 1:57:26 PM PST · by Gamecock · 6 replies · 226+ views
    CPRG ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    “Sensus plenior” is a Latin term which means, literally, “fuller sense,” or “deeper meaning”. The term “sensus plenior” is used to refer to those passages which, at their most obvious level speak of one person or event, but which also have a deeper meaning hinted at through that specific event in question. In other words, “sensus plenior” is the term which acknowledges that some historical persons and events in the Old Testament are really “types,” and that the passages treating of those persons and events speak not just of themselves alone, but also of the “antitypes” (i.e., the fulfillments of...
  • Theological FAQs: Wasn't the Old Testament written especially to the Jews.......

    01/13/2010 9:55:01 AM PST · by Gamecock · 14 replies · 519+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Full Title: Wasn't the Old Testament written especially to the Jews, so that it doesn't apply in the same way to Christians? The Old Testament was written particularly to the Jews, whom God called out from all the nations to be his special people (e.g. Deuteronomy 7:6); and so, Paul speaks of the privilege of the Jews as being very great, and consisting most especially in this, that they were given the oracles of God (Romans 3:1-2). Elsewhere, Paul consistently speaks of the Jews as having a definite temporal priority in God's redemptive design (just as Christ had taught before...
  • Theological FAQ: Isn't it reading too much into the O. T. to see references to Christ on every page?

    01/12/2010 1:24:04 PM PST · by Gamecock · 45 replies · 689+ views
    CPRF ^ | Nathan Pitchford & John Hendryx
    Full Title: Isn't it reading too much into the Old Testament to see references to Christ on every page? The fact that the message of Christ crucified and exalted is whispered on every page of the Old Testament is argued for throughout the New Testament, and may be clearly discerned in how the first apostles interpreted and applied various Old Testament passages in their sermons and writings (e.g. Acts 2:22-36; 15:12-21; 1 Cor. 10:1-13, to name but a very few). A good exemplary passage would be Hebrews 8:5, which refers to the Old Testament tabernacle and priestly duties as “types...