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To: TexasGator

If I remember correctly, the courts ruled that by missing all of the opportunities to intervene in the forfeiture process, the debtor effectively had no standing to make a claim because she no longer held any title to the property or even had a mortgage obligation anymore.


30 posted on 05/04/2023 5:57:34 PM PDT by Alberta's Child ("I've just pissed in my pants and nobody can do anything about it." -- Major Fambrough)
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To: Alberta's Child

“If I remember correctly, the courts ruled ...”

They didn’t rule. They dismissed the case.


31 posted on 05/04/2023 5:59:41 PM PDT by TexasGator
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To: Alberta's Child

“because she no longer held any title to the property or even had a mortgage obligation anymore.”

The title was forcibly taken from her. But equity cannot be taken without due process.

As to a mortgage I have read numerous articles and briefs and only one article mentions a mortgage. All others refer to her equity.

If she was underwater before the seizure due to a mortgage and tax debt she should get nothing even if the mortgage was cancelled on seizure.

OTOH, the law should not be cancelling the mortgage to benefit the government.


32 posted on 05/04/2023 6:06:41 PM PDT by TexasGator
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