None of this makes a lot of sense to me. To me it is saying that the Democrats have a right to commit voter/election fraud & the Republicans have no right to try to prevent it. That’s insane! Is this actually in effect? It certainly seems to be.
That is not the actual statement, but only that the Republican party was prohibited from engaging in voter fraud investigations because the then Dem narrative was that Republicans were trying to suppress the black vote. I think they still say that. So, in effect, if the Republican party needs a judge’s approval before investigating voter fraud, the effect was to permit Democrat election fraud. Per another post reply, it looks like that may be a different consent decree than the one that was recently revoked. But, maybe not, my research back in 2012 was pretty thorough.