[Hemingway's Ghost]

Would said Libertarian be able to explain how that behavior harms another? Unless you're arguing that laws may be passed against behavior that merely offends another?

There are two wholly-separate standards for public and private behavior, are there not?

[robertpaulsen]

"There are two wholly-separate standards for public and private behavior, are there not?"

Currently, yes. But a Libertarian didn't write those laws.

I'm asking you how your Libertarian would be able to justify such a law based on the philosophy that laws should only constrain acts that harm another.