His name is Yeshua.
That is not correct. In Aramaic it sounds like what we would spell with our alphabet "Yehoshua"; but transliterated from Hebrew/Aramaic into Koine Greek it would sound like what we would spell with our English alphabet as "yaysooce," but only in the nominative case. It would sound different depending how its ending is inflected to show that it is in another case as grammatically used. That may also be true in the Hebrew/Aramaic, but I have no information in hand as to that aspect.
Check out the verse Hebrews 4:8 as to what the word is, and how the Greek is translated in the KJV as compared to a modern version like, say, the NKJV:
"ει γαρ αυτους ιησους κατεπαυσεν ουκ αν περι αλλης ελαλει μετα ταυτα ημερας" (Textus Receptus)
"For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day." (KJV)
"For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day. (NKJV)
"For if Joshua had given them rest, He would not have spoken of another day after that." (NASB)
(My underlining in the above for word comparison)
It can get a little confusing for those who are not well-acquainted with the ancient languages.
With respect,
imardmd1