To: SunkenCiv
Article II Section 1:
Each State shall appoint, in such Manner as the Legislature thereof may direct, a Number of Electors, equal to the whole Number of Senators and Representatives to which the State may be entitled in the Congress: but no Senator or Representative, or Person holding an Office of Trust or Profit under the United States, shall be appointed an Elector.
There is no Constitutional requirement that there even BE a popular vote. If a state decided there would be no popular presidential vote, and instead the state legislature would decide who the electoral votes went to, then that would be entirely constitutional.
20 posted on
02/05/2018 9:21:02 AM PST by
PapaBear3625
(Big governent is attractive to those who think that THEY will be in control of it.)
To: PapaBear3625
40 posted on
02/05/2018 9:51:11 AM PST by
SunkenCiv
(www.tapatalk.com/groups/godsgravesglyphs/, forum.darwincentral.org, www.gopbriefingroom.com)
To: PapaBear3625
If a state decided there would be no popular presidential vote, and instead the state legislature would decide who the electoral votes went to states Electors were , then that would be entirely constitutional. IMHO the Constitution contemplates that there would be a difference. With the hope that the states would select wise Electors.
64 posted on
02/05/2018 2:55:43 PM PST by
conservatism_IS_compassion
(Presses can be 'associated,' or presses can be independent. Demand independent presses.)
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