Biblical precedent does support one man married to several women in the OT. However no precedent exists for one woman to marry several men. In the NT this is limited back to one man to one woman.
Interesting that you bring biblical approval into this. The bible clearly states that those who practice homosexuality are to be destroyed (OT). And that homosexual behavior is never moral (that is, those who practice it will not enter the kingdom of heaven) and that they who practice it will reap the recompence of their error.
So it's OK for Jews to engage in polygamy?
"The bible clearly states that those who practice homosexuality are to be destroyed (OT)."
In other words, when it comes to civil rights, for instance the right not to be killed because of something the Bible says, the law supports NOT following Biblical dogma.
So then, what's the objection to same sex marriages, other than "we've never done this before".
Actually, the Bible records multiple wives, but it never supports it. David is warned not to accumulate wives or horses and Solomon pays a high price for accumulating wives. There are few other mentions of polygamy, but they are only mentioned, never condoned.
The definition of marriage as given in Genesis is one man and one woman. Jesus reaffirmed that definition as did Paul.
One can only justify polygamy via the Bible by ignoring much of the Bible. That is generally a bad way to read the Bible.
Shalom.
Must there be exactly two persons in a marriage?
Must they be over a certain age?
Must they be a certain genetic "distance" apart? (i.e., can they be brother and sister? Mother and son? First cousins? Second cousins?)
And can you perhaps summarize your basis for imposing these restrictions on marriage? In other words, why shouldn't the full legal status of marriage (even if we call it civil unions) be extended to any mutually consenting group of persons who wishes to acquire it?
Thanks.