That footnote is the definition that the Islamic council holds to be the meaning of the Koran, so you are now arguing that the Islamic scholars, all those that control every word printed in the Koran are all wrong as well?
That can get your head chopped off if you lived in an Islamic country.
All I’m arguing is that your footnote is, at best, dishonest and at worst, an outright lie.
Odd, that I didn’t come across any such footnotes. Of course I stopped looking after I found 2 sources that didn’t mention anything close to what your footnotes read.
Funny how people perverse history to use it for their personal gains.