As in Kansas, I wonder if they can dig up even ONE eligible voter who is unable to obtain the proper I.D.
That’s the thing for me....it’s an assertion that should be proven before striking it down. I don’t believe it to be true, just because a judge says so doesn’t make it true either.
I thought that you had to show evidence of injustice first, not just assume that it would cause it??
We all know why they don’t want this. The other aspect of this is; how many of these “poor and minority” voters, assuming some couldn’t get an ID, actually vote? I doubt many...along with the adjustment for voter fraud, what’s the delta?
Can’t I make the argument that unless we have voter ID then we have little to no means of, not only eliminating voter fraud but, DETECTING voter fraud. If a few voters can’t get an ID (which I think is a racist assertion too, it assumes they’re not capable of doing so) how is that offset from fraud in the entire system? There’s a higher obligation to first make sure there’s no way to commit fraud.
These decisions by these judges are hyper-partisan - anybody that works for the state favors Democrats....getting very tired of it. We no longer live in a Constitutional Republic.
It hasn’t affected voting in Indiana. Why are other states creating their own versions of the law. It has already been found constitutional in Indiana.