England did NOT have "common law" in terms of true 'bottom-up' governance until the Glorious Revolution of 1688. So, in fact, we are the only nation to have all four of these from the outset. And if you'd read "A Patriot's History of the United States," you'd know that the last part of your comment isn't relevant.
No. None of these countries had a truly “Protestant” religion from their origin (Anglicanism is not really a protesting religion-—it is Catholicism accomodating Henry’s divorce.)