[Cold Heat]

Women were granted legal status by statute and then by amendment and thus are able to pass on natural born constitutional status on their own, just as the father once did.

[so_real]

" ... and then by amendment and thus are able to pass on natural born constitutional status on their own, just as the father once did"

And there you have it ... the heart of the legal question!

Did the Fourteenth Amendment with purpose weaken the Constitutional requirement of "natural born citizen" to a status which could be conferred by "either" parent having pure allegiance and jurisdiction? Or, is this status only conferred by "both" parents having pure allegiance and jurisdiction?

As this was not specifically spoken to in the amendement, I would presume no weakening of the requirement occurred. Remember that women could not vote until the Nineteenth Amendment; the doctrine of "partus sequitur patrem" was very much the standard with regard to citizens.

Furthermore, the author of the Fourteenth Amendment, Rep. John Bingham, describing his understanding of the language of the Constitution as ... "that every human being born within the jurisdiction of the United States of parents not owing allegiance to any foreign sovereignty is, in the language of your Constitution itself, a natural born citizen" with my emphasis added.

I welcome the counter-argument by those who disagree. But even in disagreement, you see, there is a genuine dispute in material fact. It must be adjudicated. And it is long overdue for the Supreme Court to quit cowering in their corner and do their job with regard to the matter.