At what point does the jurisdiction of the Court of Appeal of Versailles, France begin, and where does the jurisdiction of Court of Appeal of Versailles, France end?
It’s largely irrelevant beyond laying out the facts. There was a specific issue raised by the PLO based on their “right” to the land, or the “illegality” of Israeli governance, which they lost. Means nothing beyond the specific complaint, but does lay out quite well the legitimacy of Israel’s governance of the “West Bank”, and the right of Jews to live there. A court in London might well disagree, as would some in the US. And Germany, where if you’re upset with Israel you can now burn Synagogues. But imo their argument from 4 years ago is correct.