To: Alberta's Child
My understanding is that the rule against running back to a prior base only applies if the runner does so for the purpose of confusing the opposing team or "making a travesty of the game." Neither one of those applied in this case, so I believe they cleaned the rule up or issued a clarification that would apply in the future.So would it be allowable for a runner who has already secured second to surrender the base and run back to first on the next pitch? In essence, a reverse steal. I could perhaps see the advantage in this if the open first base would allow the opposing team to walk a dangerous hitter. The new no-pitch IBB complicates this strategy and makes it a moot question but would it have been possible before?
26 posted on
04/05/2017 8:45:52 AM PDT by
CommerceComet
(Hillary: A unique blend of incompetence and corruption.)
To: CommerceComet
That would definitely not be allowed. In fact, that scenario was what originally prompted MLB to add the rule against running the bases in reverse. The Segura case was clearly the result of confusion, but that situation is deliberate.
27 posted on
04/05/2017 8:56:07 AM PDT by
Alberta's Child
(President Donald J. Trump ... Making America Great Again, 140 Characters at a Time)
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson