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To: raiderboy

The Founding Fathers only allowed landowners to vote because they were the taxpayers of the day (there wasn’t yet an income tax). I’d propose only letting taxpayers vote (regardless of how they contribute) - and I’m a homeowner. If you didn’t do that, then landowners would be deciding how non-landowners’ taxes were being spent - they’d be taxed without representation.


44 posted on 02/13/2018 4:01:10 AM PST by kearnyirish2 (Affirmative action is economic warfare against white males (and therefore white families).)
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To: kearnyirish2

States determine who can vote, the Founders did not and left the electorate to the States as long as they are constitutional. There were even times when certain states allowed non-citizens to vote.


54 posted on 02/13/2018 12:14:14 PM PST by arrogantsob (See "Chaos and Mayhem" at Amazon.com)
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