Wonder how this fits in with the SCOTUS ruling recently?
Well, the reason for the law appears to be that many of the unions represent less than half of the eligible teachers. That can be taken to mean that most of the teachers already do not pay dues.
It would seem that there are in fact none or at least very few that would be paying against their will.
However since the union is not representtive of the majority, there can be collective bargining tht is in effect ignored