[Repeal The 17th]

"...Yes, the amendments are part of the Constitution.
No, there is no constitutional right to vote..."
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I hoped you would be able to see where I was going with my question...

So...what about:
A1-"the right of the people peaceably to assemble"?
A2-"the right of the people to keep and bear Arms"?
A4-"the right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects"?
None of those things are mentioned anywhere except in the Amendments.

So how is "the right to vote" in A15; A19; and A26 any different?

"shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any State"

[Electric Graffiti]

The fact that you have 3 separate amendments prohibiting discrimination on race, sex and age for the voting process implies there is no explicit right to vote. Just because it is referenced in the various amendments doesn’t mean anything. There is no declaration of a ‘right to vote’. That this ‘right to vote’ shall not be infringed.

[no-s]

The Constitution does not confer rights. The rights are pre-existing. Thus, it is not a Constitutional right to vote. The government is established by the Constitution, which specifically restricts it to enumerated powers. Government is further particularly restricted by the "Bill of Rights" to "Prevent misconstruction or abuse of it's powers" - see the preamble.

I'm not sure if this is what freedomjusticeruleoflaw means by "there is no constitutional right to vote". The 19th amendment restricts "the United States or any state" and empowers Congess to enforce this through legislation. Did you just mean this as a prompt to examine the meaning of "United States"?