And what determines which party came out on top? What if both parties think they came out on top? Who is the final judge?
There has never been a deal in the history of mankind that both parties benefitted precisely equally.
As determined by what?
Why is that so hard to understand...... it’s such a basic yet universal concept. What’s more it’s demonstrably provable.
Then prove it. And you're going to have to go back to every deal every done. Good luck. Let me know when you're finished.
All you have to do is come up with one. You’re asking me to analyze every deal that’s every been made from the beginning of time and prove inequity in each and every one.
A monumentally inane request on it’s face.
Common sense is enough to prove my point and rocket science is not required.