Yet he went ahead and paid the full amount in 2012, 2013, and 2014.
I think this shows his intent to do the right thing. This sounds like malicious law practice on the part of the county.
It may be legal but definitely BS.
Since he continued paying, I think the Court might set the foreclosure aside on the grounds he was entitled to have his payments applied to his oldest debt first. If so applied, there would be no basis for the foreclosure.