“He who does not work should not eat.”
Not exactly. It’s in II Thessalonians. It allows for people who aren’t able to work.
” ... this we commanded you, that if any would not (WILL NOT) work, neither should he eat.” People who make the choice not to work should not eat.
Not exactly. It’s in II Thessalonians. It allows for people who aren’t able to work.
” ... this we commanded you, that if any would not (WILL NOT) work, neither should he eat.” People who make the choice not to work should not eat.
θέλει verb indicative present active 3rd person singular from θέλω
ἐσθιέτω. verb imperative present active 3rd person singular from ἐσθίω
“He who is not working must not eat” would be a lethal/hyper-literal translation just looking at the tenses. The Catholic position is that one must take the phrase in the context of not only the whole of the book, but the whole of the Pauline corpus, the whole of the Bible, and the whole of Church tradition. But as for non-Catholics, who am I to judge? And even for Catholics, who am I to judge?