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To: drop 50 and fire for effect

That is a bad analogy given the Crimea was very much Russian for more than 150 years, from before Texas was a state, for comparison. It was only made part of the Ukraine SSR as part of the USSR in the 1950s, because Khrushchev was from Ukraine and was calling the shots in the USSR, and made that administrative change.


12 posted on 03/15/2024 4:05:12 AM PDT by FreedomPoster (Islam delenda est)
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To: FreedomPoster
That is a bad analogy given the Crimea was very much Russian for more than 150 years, from before Texas was a state, for comparison.

So was Poland. Crimea did not have a Russian majority until, in an act of ethnic cleansing, Stalin expelled the native Tartar population and replaced them with Russians. But what do you have to say about the other territories which have majority Ukrainian populations and have been recognized as a part of Ukraine since the time of Lenin?

17 posted on 03/15/2024 4:47:07 AM PDT by Petrosius
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