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To: connectthedots
The only proper conclusion is that God allows sin, but the sins of men cannot alter God's ultimate plan for mankind

That really is a difference without a distinction, because it is obvious from scripture that God uses the sins of men to accomplish His Purpose (Joseph and his brothers).

About the only sins that served a purpose were those related to the birth, life, death, and resurrection of Jesus Christ as prophesied.

And what sins were those, seeing that Christ was born sinless, of a virgin, and did not sin Himself, but rather bore the sins of All who believe on Him, died, and was raised again for their justification?? Your statement makes no sense.

45 posted on 06/06/2004 9:11:29 PM PDT by nobdysfool (Faith in Christ is the evidence of God's choosing, not the cause of it.)
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To: nobdysfool

Learn to read. "Related to" is not the same as "committed by". It isn't that my sentence is unclear; it's your poor reading comprehension.


48 posted on 06/06/2004 9:20:06 PM PDT by connectthedots
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