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To: OneWingedShark
I’d like to point out that in Judaism there is the “age of accountability” where a child becomes an adult responsible for their own actions esp. in the legal sense. Does this apply to Christianity? If you say no, justify your answer with an explanation... after all, Christianity is a form of Judaism [that the gentile-Christians do not have the whole of the Mosaic-law obligations* laid upon them as the Jewish people do is irrelevant to the point]; further, Jesus said that He didn not come to Destroy the Law [but to fulfill it]. (* See Acts 15; esp. verses 5, 10&11, 19&20 and 28&29)

Age of Legal Accountability for Court Trials really doesn't have anything to do with Adam's Original Sin and the Fall of Man.

So, I don't have any problem with Christians specifying an age at which children can be treated by the Courts as adults, but it really doesn't have a whole lot to do with the Theology of Original Sin -- whether Arminian/Free-Willers preaching their wicked and depraved doctrine of Infant Damnation, or Calvinists preaching our righteous doctrine of Infant Salvation.

6 posted on 09/15/2010 11:57:40 AM PDT by Christian_Capitalist (Taxation over 10% is Tyranny -- 1 Samuel 8:17)
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To: Christian_Capitalist

>Age of Legal Accountability for Court Trials really doesn’t have anything to do with Adam’s Original Sin and the Fall of Man.

So then the Law of Moses has nothing to do with original sin? That’s an incredibly laughable/ridiculous sentiment.

>whether Arminian/Free-Willers preaching their wicked and depraved doctrine of Infant Damnation,

I’m actually one of those “free-willers,” however I don’t agree with the doctrine of Infant Damnation... for the reasons listed in my previous post.

>or Calvinists preaching our righteous doctrine of Infant Salvation.

Really? and what right have you to say who is or is not justified in God’s sight? {This is exactly what you are doing, though dressing it up as an qualification on age.} I gave a perfectly reasonable explanation (though not too in-depth, as that could easily go into book-length works) as to how it is possible that free-will exits whilst infant-damnation does not.

Besides, if free-will does NOT exist then of what value is love? Certainly God, who has Sovereign [and therefore free] Will does not *need* humanity [or a particular individual] except by whatever measure He decides to; and He has shown us, already, that He has placed the Highest value upon us: His own Life. Of what use would such a valuation be if, as you suggest, an individual has no free-will with which to love God [or even to DO justly, as Micah 6:8 says] and/or respond to Him & His actions? Put in simplest terms, the very act of [voluntary] ‘worship’ which you yourself employ in giving thanks to God is an affirmation of free-will because it would be a useless & valueless act if you did not have [at least some manner of] control over it [by exercising] your own will.


17 posted on 09/15/2010 12:22:36 PM PDT by OneWingedShark (Q: Why am I here? A: To do Justly, to love mercy, and to walk humbly with my God.)
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