As I just posted above, since, practically speaking, all Christians were united in condemning contraception before 1930, where in the Bible does it say that one can have relations with one's husband/wife and NOT be open to offspring? It seems to me that the burden of proof lies in showing that it is biblical to contracept.
Blessed Sunday!
“It seems to me that the burden of proof lies in showing that it is biblical to contracept.”
It seems to me that the Bible is silent on the issue, and therefor it probably is an area where folks are free to choose.