I forgot to mention that the ministry of Christ occurred in the last days:
"God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;" (Heb 1:1-2 KJV)
When evaluating Genesis 49, note that the lawgiver is Judah, but his seed is Christ. This is the verse:
"The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be." (Gen 49:10 KJV)
Young's Literal Translation omits the word Shiloh, and adds "seed":
The sceptre turneth not aside from Judah, And a lawgiver from between his feet, Till his Seed come; And his [is] the obedience of peoples." (Gen 49:10 YLT)
But according to Strong's, the word Shiloh is "an epithet of the Messiah." Anyway, when did the "gathering" occur?
I believe it began in the beginning of Christ's ministry. Recall that he said this:
"…I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Mat 15:24 KJV)
And when he sent his disciples out, where did he send them?
"These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. And as ye go, preach, saying, The kingdom of heaven is at hand. Heal the sick, cleanse the lepers, raise the dead, cast out devils: freely ye have received, freely give." (Mat 10:5-8 KJV)
Later, around chapter 10 of the book of Acts, the Gentiles were (finally) grafted in to the tree. So, salvation was to the Jew first, then the Gentile, sorta. It was actually to the "house of Israel" first. Jesus had rejoined the Judah and Israel into one:
"I am the good shepherd, and know my sheep, and am known of mine. As the Father knoweth me, even so know I the Father: and I lay down my life for the sheep. And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd." (John 10:14-16 KJV)
The "rejoining" of the two "nations" of Israel was prophesied several times: this is from Ezekiel:
"For thus saith the Lord God; Behold, I, even I, will both search my sheep, and seek them out. As a shepherd seeketh out his flock in the day that he is among his sheep that are scattered; so will I seek out my sheep, and will deliver them out of all places where they have been scattered in the cloudy and dark day… I will seek that which was lost, and bring again that which was driven away, and will bind up that which was broken, and will strengthen that which was sick: but I will destroy the fat and the strong; I will feed them with judgment." (Eze 34:11-12, 16 KJV)
Philip
I know that - Rather, I believe the ministry of Messiah began the last days. Whether that 'ministry' is the ministry proper, or the cross itself, can be debated. Paul and John both declare they are living in the last days.
When evaluating Genesis 49, note that the lawgiver is Judah, but his seed is Christ.
Yes, of course - I have already said the inheritance of Judah winds up in Messiah. But the lion's share, the material 'most' winds up in the children of Joseph - Particularly Ephraim. Understanding that the blessing cannot be transferred to another tribe, how does that wind up in Messiah? It doesn't.
But according to Strong's, the word Shiloh is "an epithet of the Messiah." Anyway, when did the "gathering" occur? I believe it began in the beginning of Christ's ministry. Recall that he said this: "…I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel." (Mat 15:24 KJV)
Yep... you are right on the money so far. In this 'role' He is YHWH remarrying The House of Israel, who had been divorced nearly 1500 years earlier. His death allows him to legally remarry her, which is what Paul is talking about in Romans 7:1-3, and elsewhere. The 'Bride', necessarily must be the House of Israel.
So YES, it 'began to occur' when the disciples were sent forth.
Later, around chapter 10 of the book of Acts, the Gentiles were (finally) grafted in to the tree. So, salvation was to the Jew first, then the Gentile, sorta. It was actually to the "house of Israel" first. Jesus had rejoined the Judah and Israel into one:
There is our disagreement - you are conflating the House of Judah with the House of Israel - Judah was never divorced, hence must necessarily be distinct from Israel.
When Judah lost the ministry, it was given to 'not my people' which is a distinct group, the 'lo ammi' from Hosea - The House of Israel.
'First to the Jew'... The term 'Jew' does not mean 'all of Israel' - It is a shortened epithet of 'Judah' - The House of Judah. Only Judah, part of Benjamin, and part of Levi are 'Jews'. So the ministry of Messiah, the proper ministry itself, was delivered to the Jew first. But Judah rejected it - as was prophesied. THEN the ministry was to be given to 'not my people' - a subset of the out-of-covenant gentiles, which 'not my people' are the House of Israel. The death of Messiah allowed the remarriage... and the House of Israel - Ephraim, the fruitful bough - will inherit the 'gentiles'... the ministry went to them, and through them to all the world.
The "rejoining" of the two "nations" of Israel was prophesied several times: this is from Ezekiel:
I am far more aware of the implications of Ezekiel than you can imagine. But the truth here is that 'the joining of the two sticks' has not happened, even to this day... or rather, the joining cannot even yet be complete, because Judah is joined to no one.
And by the way, getting back to Gen 49... How do the blessings of the other tribes wind up in Messiah... there is only ONE way for that to happen - When Yeshua comes for his bride, he assumes ownership of all that is hers...