“Please.... The last remaining western Roman office was vacated in the mid 5th Century, but the Denarius was worthless by 270.”
So now you’re going back to earlier posts rather than make an actual argument? Thanks for - once again - proving my point.
Also, if the denarius was worthless by 270 that hardly explains why it still took another 140 years for Rome to be occupied by a Visigothic army. Also, Flavius Julius Nepos, the de jure last Emperor of the Western Roman Empire died in 480 so how could the last Western Roman office have been vacated in “the mid 5th Century”? You’re almost 3 decades off. Even if you use the traditional end of the Western Empire - September 4, 476 - when Odoacer overthrew Romulus Augustus (who by the way lived for at least 30 more years) you are still off by some years.
The one you're avoiding. If you can tell me when the book is first referenced then we'll have the basis for discussion. I'll check in later.