Replies

Why do you claim non-prohibition is a fallacious argument? Paul uses it in Romans 14 and 1 Corinthians 8, most notably. I am not arguing from an absence of evidence, which is what you seem to assume I'm doing--and I agree that would be fallacious, but that's not what I'm arguing. I am arguing that the way 2nd-century church leaders who were trained by the Apostles interpreted the NT passages is consistent with historic Catholic practice. You are interpreting certain passages differently than I am, but a different interpretation is not a mere absence of evidence. And I am also arguing that Scripture does not give laymen the authority to prohibit practices which have not been prohibited by God. That does not mean we cannot make logical deductions from principles, to address another point you make towards the end of your reply. But I see no Scriptural principle that teaches we should not ask our faithfully-departed brethren to pray for us, and I see Scriptural principles as well as Jewish and post-Apostolic practices that imply the opposite.

You did not answer my question about who the "prayers of saints" in Revelation were for. I did not say it said "prayers to the saints", but per your own point about making reasonable inferences from what Scripture does say, I await your answer to this question. Who are the martyred saints in Revelation praying for? (And if you look down at 6:9-10, that verse does suggest they have awareness of what's going on on earth.)

My reference to Matthew, Luke, John, and Paul was referring to their general Mariology, not specifically to praying to departed saints, if you look back at the item I was replying to. You will not find praying to departed Christian saints in the early books of the NT for the logical reason that there were few Christian martyrs until after the fall of Jerusalem, so they're weren't dead Christians to pray to yet. But there are references to praying to OT saints in the Judaism of the time, and--I am arguing (in brief: obviously I am not doing a full-length study here, but I can provide a bibliography when I have more time if requested)--there are allusions to praying to saints in Hebrews and Revelation as well--by the time these books were written, there were a growing number of Christian martyrs.

The Transfiguration: how did Peter know it was Moses and Elijah if there was the absolute lack of awareness you posit? There is nothing in the passages in question that imply only Jesus was able to hear them. When God spoke and said "This is my Son, whom I love; with him I am well pleased. Listen to him!", the indication is that the Apostles could hear what was being said. Peter describes himself, James, and John as "eyewitnesses" to the event in 2 Peter. All indications are that they were fully present to the conversation (to the point where Peter offered to put up tents for their ghostly guests!).

"If you become God, presumably you would be capable of the same miracle, but we both know that isn't happening, so it remains a category mistake in this discussion." I do not need to become God--which is impossible--because God dwells in me through the Holy Spirit, and the Holy Spirit "intercedes with us with groans that words cannot express"--and the Holy Spirit can certainly communicate with the faithful departed, which is another point I'd encourage you to consider.

Thank you for your prayers. I pray that God will guide us both to greater knowledge of the truth of His Word.