Mary knew how babies are made (otherwise she wouldn’t have asked the question she did). If she had anticipated having children in the normal way and did not intend to maintain a vow of virginity, she would hardly have to ask "how" she was to have a child, since conceiving a child in the "normal" way would be expected by a newlywed wife. Her question makes sense only if there was an apparent (but not a real) conflict between keeping a vow of virginity and acceding to the angel’s request. A careful look at the New Testament shows that Mary kept her vow of virginity and never had any children other than Jesus.
No. This false theory is derived from the Protoevangelium of James IIRC.
There is nothing in the NT account that indicates Mary was making a perpetual vow of virginity.
What the passage does indicate is Mary knew she and Joseph, nor any other man, had had sex.
I agree she knew the biology behind baby making.
Her dilemma was in the timing of this. How can there be a baby if she hasn't had sex with anyone? A very natural question to ask if you haven't had sex and you're told you're going to have the Son of God.
If Rome were so confident of this account they could have incorporated the Protoevangelium in the NT canon at Trent when they formalized their canon.
That they didn't is telling.
Of course it would make a perfect sense.
She knew she had not had sex and knew then how babies were made. It would have been a perfectly reasonable statement. *How can I be pregnant? I haven't had sex yet.*
The claim that it meant that she meant she was never going to have sex doesn't even play into a comment as basic and simple as that. It's just wishful thinking.
I don't know why Catholics are so consumed with the idea that having sex with her lawful husband was somehow beneath her.