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2500 years is pure Eisegesis.

I'm having trouble with that one too, at least the part about "times" representing only another 1,000 years. This is the first time I've seen this theory, and I've been thinking about it all day.

I'm working on a timeline on another set of gentiles, the Constantine sect. From my efforts, I developed the idea that the term "a time" and "times" might possibly mean two separate frames of time, even if used in the same sentence or prophesy. Why else make the distinction in the prophecy, unless it was for some significant distinction?

To me it makes more sense than the obvious attempt of the author(s) here to bend 1,000 to fit their needs.

But what if "a time" indeed represents 1,000 years - I can buy that. And what if, as in what I'm working on, "times" represents an entirely different frame of time, lets say here "times" represents 490 years [70 sevens of years, per Daniel's 70 week prophesy - certainly a historical frame of time] times 2 - that's keeping with the general understanding of the meaning of "times" [multiply by 2 right?].

Therefore, a time (1,000 years), times (2 x 490 = 980 years), and half a time (1,000 / 2 = 500 years) gives us a total of 2,480 years, instead of the author(s) 2,500 years.

So instead of arriving 1967, when Jerusalem was recaptured, per the author(s) of this piece, we now arrive at another important time, perhaps even more important, when Israel became a nation state again in 1947, [In one hour, IIRC], exactly as prophesied.

"In 1947, the United Nations (UN) adopted a Partition Plan for Palestine recommending the creation of independent Arab and Jewish states and an internationalized Jerusalem. The plan was accepted by the Jewish Agency, and rejected by Arab leaders."

Please check to see that I haven't made a big goof up someplace. :)