The whole issue here in the definition of ‘genocide’ which isn’t stated. Craig notes that the intent of God’s edict is for the Israelites to gain sole occupancy of the land God gave to them. This involved both killing the present occupants and driving them out. The goal is not to rid the earth of Canaanites but to claim that particular land for the Israelites.
But Craig makes the case that, regardless of God's command, it was OK to kill them all because the children would be in a better place.
It would have been OK if instead Dawkins had called Craig "a deplorable apologist for the mass extermination of a people so we can take their land"?