As I have noted in these discussions, it is usually, though not always, the Roman Catholic who first resorts to the personal attack and/or profanity when the argument goes against them.
Now, to correct the errors.
“Mary said ... From age to age, all generations shall call me holy” — Luke 1
You're going to have to supply the translation that is from. None of the major translations render the passage in that manner.
The actual translation from the Douay-Rheims 1899 American edition:
48 Because he hath regarded the humility of his handmaid; for behold from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.
The Greek word in the passage for blessed is μακαρίζω. It is generally defined as: makarízō – pronounce blessed, as the result of enjoying the benefits (privileges) that (literally) extend from God.
It is used twice in the NT...once in Luke 1:48 and in James 5:11
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When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!” 27 Then He said to the disciple, “Behold your mother!” — John 19
And again the Greek fails the Roman Catholic on this passage as well. Here Jesus is giving Mary to John. He is not giving her to the "church" as is claimed by Rome.
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“And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars... And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne. And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.” — Revelation
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And again Scripture, when read in context, will fail the Roman Catholic.
1A great sign appeared in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars; 2and she was with child; and she cried out, being in labor and in pain to give birth. Revelation 12:1-2 NASB
This passage alone contradicts the Roman Catholic claim that Mary was sinless. IF she were not under the curse from Genesis she would not be crying out in pain.
To the woman He said, “I will greatly multiply Your pain in childbirth, In pain you will bring forth children; Yet your desire will be for your husband, And he will rule over you.” Genesis 3:16 NASB
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You've demonstrated you know Roman Catholic talking points but you demonstrate a lack of knowledge of Scripture.
Not to mention the woman in the revelation passage is Israel, not Mary
And yet you can find just as many (actually more) which say the greek agrees with us. The Orthodox church (including the Greek Orthodox Church) agrees with us on almost everything, so this is where your argument fails.
Jesus was sinless and divine and yet felt pain and died. Yet, somehow that doesn’t apply to Mary, just to prove your point?
It's not Catholic teaching that Mary was preserved from ALL consequences of original sin. She suffered, she got old, and she died. Her son also suffered and died, you'll recall. He wasn't preserved from all of the bad consequences of original sin, either. As usual, you're shooting blanks.
As another poster pointed out, don't fall into the ridiculous trap of asserting that Catholic doctrine can be disproven by an appeal "to the Greek" in areas where we are in total agreement with the Greeks themselves, unless you want to amuse us by trying to claim that the Greeks don't actually know their own language.
That’s the funny thing about most Catholics.
They have their talking points, but have no idea what to do when challenged on them.
And so typically resort to wild attacks or the argument from tradition fallacy. Which is in itself false because the very same church fathers they appeal to ALSO contradict Roman doctrines.
It’s the same thing as leftists screaming slogans online, nothing more.