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To: history_matters
The motivation for celibacy was the closer following of Jesus Christ, who required his apostles to leave wife and family, to become "eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom".
This is perhaps the only objective statement I can find in the piece, and even this shows a bias. It is certainly true that many of the early Christians practiced celibacy in imitation of Jesus, but to say that Jesus “required” his apostles to leave wife and family is a bit of a stretch. Here are the verses in question about becoming “eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom”:
Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."

The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry." Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word, but only those to whom it has been given. For some are eunuchs because they were born that way; others were made that way by men; and others have renounced marriage because of the kingdom of heaven. The one who can accept this should accept it." (Mt19:8-12 (NIV); emphasis added.)

Although the apostles who were married were not “required” to leave their wives and children, however, there is evidence that they actually did so:
Then Jesus said to his disciples, "I tell you the truth, it is hard for a rich man to enter the kingdom of heaven. Again I tell you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle than for a rich man to enter the kingdom of God."

When the disciples heard this, they were greatly astonished and asked, "Who then can be saved?" Jesus looked at them and said, "With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible."

Peter answered him, "We have left everything to follow you! What then will there be for us?" Jesus said to them, "I tell you the truth, at the renewal of all things, when the Son of Man sits on his glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. And everyone who has left houses or brothers or sisters or father or mother or children or fields for my sake will receive a hundred times as much and will inherit eternal life. But many who are first will be last, and many who are last will be first. (Mt19:23-30 (NIV); emphasis added.)

Moreover, even if one were to understand Jesus’ remarks in Mt19:8-12 to mean that celibacy was a requirement for apostleship, it’s clear from Paul’s writings that the apostles did not require their successors to be unmarried. (Cf 1Tim3:2, 1Tim3:12 and Tit1:6)

Remaining single for the sake of the kingdom is a wonderful spiritual gift, and Jesus urged those who received the gift – apostles and disciples alike -- to exercise it. There is nothing to suggest, however, that Jesus “required” his apostles to leave their wives and family or that the apostles required celibacy of their successors.

23 posted on 04/28/2002 10:40:38 AM PDT by eastsider
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To: eastsider
I am always surprised when people "slip" in the fact that "after all the apostles were married",when debating the celibacy issue. Give me one example that supports that statement. And please don't use Peter. The most that can be verified in the 4 Gospels is that Peter was married at one time. He had a mother-in-law,that we learn in each of the gospels. But it is possible that a mother outlives her child,my mother-in-law was 58 when my husband died and she lived until she was 78.

With regards Matthew 19:23-30,my Douay-Rheims has "wife",listed immediately before children.So why would one advocate for the married priest when it seems clear that Jesus is asking that all these things be given up to follow Him? Does that make any sense to you?

60 posted on 04/29/2002 2:08:06 AM PDT by saradippity
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