Were the Wisemen who visited Jesus in Bethleham Persians?

All it says is they followed HIS STAR, not that they were astrologers.

The hint that they can be astrologers is that "we have seen his star in the east". Although they saw the star in the east, they traveled west.

The hint that they were expecting something to look for is from "and are come to worship him.". Simply seeing something unusual wouldn't create a desire to worship, however expecting something to occur and regularly watching the sky and waiting for it would be natural for someone waiting for someone to worship.

.......They were all Jewish/Hebrews!

..................................................The were NOT Reformed or Conservative,....but ORTHODOX!

Micah 5:2

Merry Christmas!........................Messiah-mas!

(Romans 10:17)

One of the keys to the confusion of where the Magi were was this line:

"And he sent them to Bethlehem, and said, Go and search diligently for the young child; and when ye have found him, bring me word again, that I may come and worship him also."

1) There is not indication that the Magi were on the same timeline as the "shepards." Most likely they were not. Quite the contrary, they apparently did not find the child in Bethlehem, but much, much later at His "house" in Nazareth (Matt. 2:11, which does not say "manger," or "inn," or "stable," but "house.") That is "where the Child was." It does not say that at that time the holy family was still in Bethlehem, and another clue is the subtle change in the wording from Luke 2:12, which says that the shepards would find the "Babe"---not "young Child"---"lying in a manger"---not in a "house."

Further evidence is that Mary could not be present at Jesus' purification ceremony for 40 days, and they were in Jerusalem for that ceremony, meaning it was at minimum 40 days after the birth that the holy family was in Jerusalem, not Bethtlehem, THEN immediately went to Nazareth (Luke 2:39) where the Magi finally caught up to them at Joseph's "house." THEN they fled to Egypt, which explains why Herod had to kill all CHILDREN (not "babes") two years and under, because he did the math and figured out it had been two years since he sent the Magi to Bethlehem and then they had skeedaddled.

I am convinced of the time lapse as you pointed out, just not he extant of the time.

You might be right, the Bible is silent of just how long a lapse there was, but we can agree there sure was one! :)

I thought the 2 year and younger slaughter was based on when the Wise Men journey would have begun to when they found Herod.

I am intrigued by the thought that the Magi may have been zoroastrians, as I am intrigued by the fact that Cyrus was referred to by the hebrew writers as "righteous" in a way that foreigners usually were not.

I am also intrigued by the possibility of cross-fertilization between the hebrews and the zoroasters which may have occurred as a result of the babylonian exile.

"They are thought to have been followers of Zoroaster, the Persian teacher and prophet"

This is an embellishment. Zoroaster means 'seed of Aster,' the harlot wife of Nimrod, or in other words Tammuz (or Osiris if you prefer). This is the basis of all pagan worship throughout history; The 'goddess and god' of nature worship.

No 'star' is mentioned in the word; it says that they saw his sign, which is the shekinah. No mystery, no astrology, no magic. So simple that the world hates it.

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