To: MindBender26
Not sure but they put it there for a reason. I suppose that it may have been Galen who gave us that translation in the second century. Whether or not the drugs or mixtures were effective at least they considered them drugs for a purpose. I recommend reading Soranus "Gynecology." a Roman book on the subject.
5 posted on
03/17/2006 9:27:06 PM PST by
Cato1
To: Cato1
Will dig out my 7th grade Latin books and have at it!
Google says he wrote on OB/Gyn and Midwiffery. Did he also write on abortion?
6 posted on
03/17/2006 9:39:47 PM PST by
MindBender26
(Having my own CAR-15 in RVN meant never having to say I was sorry....)
To: Cato1
Galen would have used much more literate grammar than the supposed 'translation' supplied above. And, in any case, English language did not exist at that time.
All that said, there is no doubt whatever that abortifacient procedures and chemicals existed in his day.
12 posted on
03/17/2006 10:57:53 PM PST by
SAJ
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