Most experts on Indo-European origins seem to think that the area just north of the Black Sea is where the ancestral population lived. I don’t think anyone thinks the language family originated in India other than some scholars in India. Nowadays the majority of the people in the subcontinent speak one of the Indo-European languages but they were introduced by “Aryan” invaders.
Yes, quite true, but I wanted to focus on only one flaw at a time in the posting to which I was responding. It seemed to me to be more egregious to claim that English originated at a time before even Old English was spoken.
Regards,