[D-fendr]

Really can a woman have a baby after she dies. No.

And that's the point of the example: the use of "until" does not mean she did afterward; any more than its use in your example means Joseph had sexual relations with Mary afterward.

I've given examples in scripture and in use today where it did not carry the meaning you give it.

[Elsie]

So Joseph we are told did not know Mary 'until' the birth of Jesus Christ. If you want to redefine until as it is clearly stated in that passage to fit a traditional doctrine, fine but don't cast stones at other Christians who see "until" meaning what it is.

Well; Scripture records that a 'closed womb' is a curse from GOD; and we all KNOW that Mary was (is) blessed; thus the question for Catholicism to answer is WHY didn't Mary have any more children as you have taught all these years.

[redleghunter]

I clearly pointed out with examples until means UNTIL. The 2 Sam 6:23 reference is rendered unto.