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1 posted on 10/30/2004 8:50:32 AM PDT by CloudyI
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To: CloudyI

It's the margin of fraud that worries me.


2 posted on 10/30/2004 8:51:45 AM PDT by clintonh8r (Vietnam veteran against "global testing.")
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To: CloudyI

One term I have heard a bit, both by John Fund on radio, and by Ron Silver on tv, is the 'margin of litigation,' which is an interesting concept, for sure.


3 posted on 10/30/2004 8:53:58 AM PDT by HitmanLV (I will not be pushed, filed, stamped, indexed, briefed, debriefed or numbered. My life is my own.)
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To: CloudyI

I'm with you. I don't understand the MOE.


4 posted on 10/30/2004 8:54:29 AM PDT by chesty_puller (God bless Texas)
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To: CloudyI

I'm not so sure about the polls, which are typically among "likely voters" because of the closeness of the percentages and the "fraud factor". I think if the election is close among legitimate voters, there is a real possibility in this election that fraudulent votes may push Kerry ahead.

I hope and pray that I am wrong.


6 posted on 10/30/2004 8:55:46 AM PDT by SteamShovel
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To: CloudyI

I guess what I mean to say is that if you just look at 1 poll then you should take the margin of error into consideration but when you are looking at many, many polls such as realclearpolitics.com then isn't the margin of error irrelevant?


7 posted on 10/30/2004 8:56:34 AM PDT by CloudyI
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To: CloudyI

Each poll is an individual snapshot. You can't just add them together and use that to reduce the margin of error to nothing. Probability and statistics doesn't work that way. It is fashionable to add different polls and average them, but that really isn't statistically valid.


8 posted on 10/30/2004 8:56:45 AM PDT by KellyAdmirer
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To: CloudyI

Statistically, I am not convinced the MOE are that accurate. There are way to many assumptions and imperfect sampling that drives the MOE higher than what they quote. Polls are impefect and relying too much on them is an error.


9 posted on 10/30/2004 8:57:03 AM PDT by Always Right
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To: CloudyI

Someone explained a few days ago that the margin of error depended on the sample size, or something like that. They said that if you could poll everyone, there would be no margin of error, and the smaller the sample, the larger the margin of error.


10 posted on 10/30/2004 8:58:53 AM PDT by HomeschoolGenealogistMom
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To: CloudyI
The MOE, depending on the size of the sample, means that the poll results are correct, within that range about 95% of the time.

So, if all the polls show Bush ahead, but within the margin of error, you can't assume that Bush is really ahead. However, the odds are certainly in your favor that he is.

But to further complicate matters, each poll uses different methodology, so it's wrong to lump them together and believe you're seeing a consistent result.

The best thing to do is to focus on voting as often as you can, and making sure your dead relatives vote also.

13 posted on 10/30/2004 9:03:13 AM PDT by Dog Gone
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To: CloudyI
My question is: If all the polls pretty much consistently show President Bush ahead of John Kerry, and they all pretty must show the same percentage points for each candidate, doesn't this diminish or eliminate the margin of error?

No. Margin of error is a poll's reality check. Suppose a poll says that Bush leads Kerry by 50-45, with a three percent margin of error. What this means is that if the poll was done correctly so that the sample is truely random, then

1. There is a 95% probability that Bush will poll anywhere from 47% to 53%, while Kerry will poll anywhere from 42% to 48%;

2. There is an 80% probability that Bush will poll anywhere from 48% to 52%, while Kerry will poll anywhere from 47% to 43%; and

3. There is a 50% probability that Bush will poll anywhere from 49% to 51%, while Kerry will poll anywhere from 44% to 46%. In other words, a lead is relevant even if it is within a margin of error, but the smaller the margin of error, the more certain you can be that the reported lead is correct or at least close to correct.

15 posted on 10/30/2004 9:04:24 AM PDT by kesg
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To: CloudyI
This is a complex statistics issue - if properly applied. In any statistical population there is error caused mostly by the application of Heisenberg. In general many of these polls are push polls; where questions are asked that lead the interviewee to lean one way or the other. In human groups it is VERY difficult to actually predict the margin of error, most polls just apply the most simplistic approach of multiplying the body by their supposed error rate. In addition, most only interview to get the - what their math and other pollsters will accept - a valid population. This method is OK in the strictest sense but lacks robustness.

Don't forget that most sheepole want to vote for the winner.

16 posted on 10/30/2004 9:04:36 AM PDT by mad_as_he$$ (Never corner anything meaner than you. NSDQ, De Opresso Liber.)
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To: CloudyI

with all the assumptions they use, MOE simply can't be determined accurately. The MOE is assuming that the real world is perfect and that the poll takers understand the underlying distribution, which they don't.

But I agree that the fact that most of the polls show Bush ahead is what is important (other than fraud, etc.)


20 posted on 10/30/2004 9:08:02 AM PDT by jimbergin
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To: CloudyI

Theoretically, the margin of error does go down as you combine poles, but the problem with polls is not statistical uncertainty, it is a problem with the methods and motives of the pollsters.

Political opinion polls are just guesses with numbers thrown on for support, and all the guessers are looking at the same data and methods, and have the same motives (the same as MSM?).

Hope for the best, prepare for the worst.


21 posted on 10/30/2004 9:11:47 AM PDT by Born to Conserve
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To: CloudyI
My question is: If all the polls pretty much consistently show President Bush ahead of John Kerry, and they all pretty must show the same percentage points for each candidate, doesn't this diminish or eliminate the margin of error?

If the polls can be regarded as random samples from a uniform population, then yes, averaging multiple polls could reduce the MOE, although it would never be reduced to 0.0.

For example, if one poll shows B50-K44 while another shows B48-K46, and both polls have an MOE of 3.0, and the same number of voters are questioned for each poll, the average of the polls (B49-K45), should have a combined MOE of roughly 2.1. The average of four polls, each individually having an MOE of 3.0, would give a combined MOE of 1.5; the average of nine such polls would have a combined MOE of 1.0; the average of 16 such polls would have a combined MOE of 0.75...

IMO, given that the numbers that are released have been "adjusted" by criteria selected by the pollster, it is misleading to average polls and combine MOEs. Better numbers might be obtained by averaging the internals from each poll.

24 posted on 10/30/2004 9:16:05 AM PDT by John832
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To: CloudyI
What bugs me is the so-called "undecideds". If they haven't decided by now, don't include them in the poll.

Say, for example a poll shows the results of "Bush - 47%, Kerry - 45% and Undecided - 8%" That makes it look close...doesn't it? But take out the undecideds in the same poll and you get the following results "Bush - 51.08% (which is 47/92) and Kerry - 48.92% (which is 45/92)"

Bush would clearly have a majority instead of a plurality...perception is everything and merely winning a plurality adds to the perception of illegitimacy the media would like us to believe.

26 posted on 10/30/2004 9:18:36 AM PDT by Preech1 (There is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus.)
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To: CloudyI
Basically, the margin of error is the likely range in which a larger poll of people sampled the same way would fall. So if you telephone a certain number of people by randomly dialing telephone numbers between 1:00 and 2:00pm and ask them which presidential candidate is less of a weasel, then if the MOE is 3% that means that if you were to select a larger group by the same means and question them the same way, then 95% of the time your results should be within 3% of your smaller sample.

Note that your poll says nothing about how people would actually vote, or even about people in general. It merely says that of those who will answer the phone between 1:00pm and 2:00pm, the percentage that will say that Bush is less of a weasel than Kerry is likely to be within 3% of the sampled value.

As for your question about combining polls, if two polls are of equal size and MOE, have similar sampling methods, and yield about the same results, the MOE of the average will be about 70% of the MOE of the polls individually. Combine four polls and the MOE of the aggregate will be about half that of the originals.

31 posted on 10/30/2004 3:10:40 PM PDT by supercat (If Kerry becomes President, nothing bad will happen for which he won't have an excuse.)
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