Posted on 07/08/2008 8:27:57 PM PDT by MaryFromMichigan
NUTS!!! I just pinged to another dual-posting.
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EXACTLY Good for Zondervan! This case should boil down to just that common sense statement.
It’s understandable, there are three or four topics now. :’)
Thanks; I’ll look for that.
What is the definition of “is.”
And also this below...verses 4 & 5, particularly.
(...but from the beginning it was not so.) - So marriage was instituted by God (not governments) from the time of Adam. I think this is a pretty clear definition of marriage - man and his wife. He even explicitly states: male & female. Singular. So a marriage cannot consist of multiples; cannot consist of the perversion that is sodomy; cannot consist of bestiality, etc...
Mt 19
3 ¶ The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
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