Posted on 10/14/2010 6:07:34 AM PDT by Colofornian
Zuriel, you are correct. It would be like what I did below. If you take out the versus after v20 and before v29 it becomes a little clearer. And no, I don’t change the meaning by taking these two verses by themselves.
20But Christ has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.
29Now if there is no resurrection, what will those do who are baptized for the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized for them? (In other words why would people be baptized for a dead person?)
The phrase “what will those do who are baptized for the dead?” is asking, if Jesus had not risen from the dead the people who had been baptized would have been baptized for some dead person and it would do them no good.
Unfortunately the Mormons have interpreted this to mean that they can be baptized in the place of some dead person.
Then HOW do they find out that the MORMONs have done such a special work for them in the baptistry?
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