Posted on 05/15/2012 5:50:55 PM PDT by Former Fetus
My previous articles [1] commenced a series on the rapture of the church. We began with the question, "What is the Rapture?" This question can best be answered by noting ten truths about the rapture from 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 and 1 Corinthians 15:50-58. In previous articles, we saw that the rapture is an important doctrine and not something that can be marginalized or explained away as a secondary doctrine. We also noted that the rapture is an event that is distinct from the Second Advent of Christ. We further observed that the rapture will involve the catching up of every believer to meet the Lord in the air. We now move to our fourth point.
A Reunion
Fourth, the rapture will be a reunion. The concern of Paul's Thessalonian converts that initiated his discussion on the rapture is recorded in 1 Thessalonians 4:13. This verse says, "But we do not want you to be uninformed, brethren, about those who are asleep, so that you will not grieve as do the rest who have no hope." Apparently, upon planting the church in Thessalonica, Paul had taught the new converts about the rapture. However, his sudden departure from Thessalonica (Acts 17:1-9) left him no opportunity to explain the full ramifications and implications of this doctrine. Thus, when some of the Thessalonian Christians began to die, either due to natural causes or persecution, the question that likely remained in the minds of the living Thessalonian believers was whether those who had died before the Lord’s return in the clouds would miss the rapture?
(Excerpt) Read more at bibleprophecyblog.com ...
I’m so glad your post #13 was a joke of some sort. I was going to refer to the concept of a hardened heart in Isaiah 6:9 and many times in the NT about ears able to hear.
I merely asked a question-
I resent your response, AND your implication.
He can take a Greek Dictionary then know Greek better than a Greek speaking Orthodox Priest. Yes all from a English to Greek translation dictionary and all the nuances too.
And I simply replied to your question. You said that you had read something and I simply told you who puts that stuff out.
>>I resent your response, AND your implication.<<
My goodness! I simply tell you that what you read was put out by people who deny what scripture says and you resent that? And you think I’m implying something? What exactly would I have been implying?
“The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me, because He has anointed Me, to preach the gospel to the poor; He has sent Me to heal the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives and recovery of sight to the blind, to set at liberty those who are oppressed; (Luke 4:18)
Paul also talks about those held captive in Sheol.
“Therefore He says: When He ascended on high, He led captivity captive, and gave gifts to men. Now this, “He ascended” – what does it mean but that He also first descended into the lower parts of the earth? He who descended is also the One who ascended far above all the heavens, that He might fill all things.” (Ephesians 4:8-10)
Jesus also told the thief on the cross that he would go with Him into paradise (Sheol).
“And Jesus said to him, “Assuredly, I say to you, today you will be with Me in Paradise.” (Luke 23:43)
After Jesus death and resurrection believers no longer go to the place called Sheol but go immediately to heaven to be with Jesus.
2 Corinthians 5:8 We are confident, I say, and willing rather to be absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord.
The concept of purgatory indicates a debt that needs to be paid. Christ paid that debt. For someone to assume that guilt is to step away from the grace of God.
Romans 4:4 Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. 5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
God imputes righteousness without works.
Romans 4:6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, 7 Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. 8 Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
We obtain that righteousness while here on earth, not after we die.
Jesus was made sin for us.
2 Corinthians 5: 21 For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Why would anyone reject what Jesus did for us and try to do it themselves when we are told that’s impossible? We know that we already have righteousness through faith.
Hebrews 11:6 But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.
So it’s impossible to please God without faith, and faith already gives us the righteousness that is required by Him why would anyone reject God’s freely given righteousness to once again return to the law of works which we know doesn’t even please Him?
On the cross Jesus last words were “it is finished”.
John 19:30 When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.
In the Greek, the phrase, “it is finished”, is written as one word – “tetelestai”. In english that means “paid in full”. By claiming that people go to purgatory to either pay for their sins or have someone else pay for them they are calling Jesus a liar.
“Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ” (Romans 8:1)
Psalm 103:12 as far as the east is from the west, so far has he removed our transgressions from us.
Even Catholics agree that if we accept Christ we are “in Christ”. If we are then in Christ and are told that there “is no condemnation for those who are in Christ” and our sins are removed “as far as the east is from he west”, what are we judged on? 1 Corinthians 3:15 is talking about the fact that since we are no longer condemned we will not stand before Christ in judgment of sin but rather in judgment of our service to Him for our rewards
If we are justified by faith we will not only escape damnation but in Hebrews we are told that God will not even remember our sins.
Hebrews 10:17 Their sins and their lawless deeds I will remember no more.
We are also told in Hebrews that once we accept Jesus sacrifice there is no more offering for sin. Not on this earth and not in some place called purgatory.
Hebrews 10:18 Now where remission of these is, there is no more offering for sin.
"To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto the word of reconciliation. Now then we are ambassadors for Christ, as though God did beseech you by us: we pray you in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled to God. For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him." 2 Cor. 5:19-21. Colossians 3:3 For you have died, and your life is hidden with Christ in God.
Now who other than you has ever said that? Certainly I haven’t. I simply take the literal meaning of Greek words as they are defined in Greek lexicons and use that meaning. I’m wondering if you ever use a dictionary. If you do, do you then know English better than someone who has studied it their entire lives or have you simply learned what that particular word means to better understand what was being said?
There will be no Christians at the final judgment...If you show up at the final judgment, you will have missed and left out of the wedding of the Bride and Groom...
You don't need to find the actual word in the Bible to believe some doctrine. Tell me, where do you see the word "Trinity"? Yet we, you as a Catholic and me as a Southern Baptist, believe in it!
Excellent!
Where is the word “trinity”?
You didnt see it? It is there...right next to "Trinity".
"I simply take the literal meaning of Greek words as they are defined in Greek lexicons and use that meaning"
Simply. Yes too much . Your problem is not seeing there is more to it. Simply indeed.
Using a regular english dictionary when we all speak English is one thing.
But using a translation dictionary for another language then calling the one who knows the other language a dolt is very wrong. Especially when you do not know the language at all.
Would we be that bold if we were in front of a foreign speaking judge and then tell him off by a translation dictionary to tell him he is wrong when he could throw you in Jail. I do not think you would be so bold .
I have called no one a dolt. When one takes the main meaning and translation of a word and it agrees with all other uses of that word and is backed up by other scholars and is supported by other passages in scripture it becomes clear what the intent of the word usage was.
>>Would we be that bold if we were in front of a foreign speaking judge and then tell him off by a translation dictionary to tell him he is wrong when he could throw you in Jail.<<
If the evidence backed up the translation dictionary and all usages of the word agreed with my understanding you can bet I would defend my case and understanding.
I find it astounding that you have offered no proof of my not using any word correctly. Rather you try to spin around the edges but never show where the intended meaning of the word is something different.
Really? let me see if I can find that reply? Amazing!
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