Pope Francis Entrusts Holy Land Pilgrimage to Mary

NC Register ^ | 5/23/2014 | BY CNA/EWTN NEWS

[delchiante]

Pope Francis privately visited the Basilica of St. Mary Major in Rome this morning to pray and entrust to the Virgin Mary his pilgrimage to the Holy Land. After 15 minutes of meditation and prayer before the image of Mary known as Salus Populi Romani, Pope Francis offered a bouquet of white and yellow roses at the feet of the Virgin. Since the beginning of his papal ministry in March 2013, this is the eighth visit Pope Francis has made to the Virgin Mary, under whose protection he has placed his pontificate. Speaking to Vatican Radio, the archpriest of the basilica, Spanish Cardinal Santos Abril y Castello, explained that Pope Francis sees Mary as a maternal guide and inspiration for his actions.

[piusv]

But they are both described the same way.

I wouldn’t use that argument anymore.

[RitaOK]

Yes, you are right, but I was thinking more about RCIA, or Baptism, or Confirmation. Your words sound a little bitter and different towards Catholics, so I was just curious where your Catholicism started or stopped. None of my business, but thought to ask anyway.

[kinsman redeemer]

Incredible.

But they are both described the same way. I wouldn’t use that argument anymore.

That's exactly why I referred to "credibility" in the earlier post.

You are presented with facts of a distinction, you close your eyes, walk away, and say "They're both described the same way. "

So. I repeat: "Incredible. "

[ebb tide]

“Stopped”?”

Check my home page.

[Former Fetus]

Just my two cents, but the wedding at Cana took place years before the Cross, way before we could “come boldly to the throne of grace, that we may obtain mercy and find grace to help in time of need”. (Heb. 4:16)

[aMorePerfectUnion]

“Many protestants don’t even have a real bible.”

Thanks. I needed the comic relief.

[ebb tide]

And Mary accepted Her fiat about 31 years prior to the wedding at Cana. What’s you’re point?

[ebb tide]

Ignorance is bliss.

[piusv]

You have proven nothing. You are criticizing “the Latin” and then go on to say the “right” translation is the Greek.

But the Greek describes Christ and Stephen the same way.

The only thing that’s incredible is your pitiful argument. Like I said, if I were you, I would refrain from using the “Greek is better” argument.

[Former Fetus]

the great dragon in Revelation coming to devour the offspring of the Woman (Mary)

There are several reasons why this woman represents Israel.

1. "a great sign appeared in heaven" (Rev. 12:1). A sign! Not a literal person but a symbol of something else.

2. "a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a garland of twelve stars." (Rev. 12:1) This is just how Gen. 37:9,10 describes the family of Jacob (aka Israel): he is the sun, Rachel is the moon and their twelve children are the twelve stars.

3. "She bore a male Child who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron". (Rev. 12:5). Some translations say an iron scepter, which would reminds us of Judah (Gen. 49:10). Most likely it refers to the one Descendant of Judah who will rule the nations "with an iron scepter" when He comes (Revelation 19:15).

4. "her Child was caught up to God and His throne" (Rev. 12:5). Jesus was resurrected and ascended into heaven (Luke 24:50-53; Mark 16:19; Acts 1:9-11).

5. "Then the woman fled into the wilderness, where she has a place prepared by God, that they should feed her there one thousand two hundred and sixty days" (Rev. 12:6). It represents a remnant of her Israeli "offspring," who will flee into the desert, to be protected by God, for the last 3½ years of the Tribulation. Just as God reserved and protected a remnant of Israelites who were true to Him in the day of Elijah (1 Kings 19:18), so He will protect a remnant in the future.

[aMorePerfectUnion]

“Ignorance is bliss.”

Sorry. I do not consider a personal testimonial to be evidential support for claims. What else do you have?

[Former Fetus]

My point is that before the Cross, we did not have the right to appeal directly to God. That’s why there were priests, as go-between God and men. After the Cross we can approach God, among other things to get help in time of need. That’s why the Pope should pray directly to God!

[kinsman redeemer]

Oh!

From now on I'll ignore the words and just go with random feelings.

Excellent idea! < /sarc>

[Former Fetus]

Excuse me, but if your intention was to have a proper debate, or even to teach about Catholic beliefs, you would not repeatedly ask about latria and hyperdulia, you would explain the terms. Oh, I’m sorry, Salvation did that for you! Of course that did not keep you from repeating the same question, so I cannot help but to wonder what are your motives.

[ebb tide]

Excuse me, was I even talking to you about hyperdulia?

[Former Fetus]

No you weren’t, but I am following this thread and couldn’t help but wondering why you would use Latin terms without explaining the meaning. I don’t have any problem with polite debate, there are several Catholics on FR with whom I love discussing theological points because I always feel that I learned something and hope I taught them something in exchange. Your questions about latria and hyperdulia did not seem aimed at making your point but to put down other posters. If I am wrong I apologize, but you should realize that that’s the way you come across.

[RitaOK]

That is very interesting. Thx.

[RitaOK]

Fabulous photos, just awesome.

So, you were confirmed then?

[piusv]

It appears you are ignoring the words..the ones that describe Christ and Stephen the same way.

You dug a hole and you just can’t get out.

[eastsider]

Of Mary, the Greek word [Lk 1:28] is kexaritomena (highly favored), of Christ (and Stephen) the Greek phrase [Jn 1:14 and Acts 6:8] is plaras karitos (full of grace).

Let me preface my remarks by saying that my computer is broken and I was reduced earlier to pecking out a reply on my blackberry. Having said that, I spent well over an hour trying to reply via blackberry, only to have it wiped out before I could even finish my reply, never mind post it. Since then, I've found a public computer to use, but I am still frustrated by my earlier experience, so please forgive me if my reply is not as thorough as I would like.

The word and phrase that we're looking at in the three verses cite at the head of this post (to which I will soon add a fourth) share a Greek radical (χάρις) meaning grace, so there is some commonality among the verses, though they are clearly not identical. In Jn 1:14 and Ac 6:8, the phrase πλήρης χάριτος is used adjectivally to qualify Christ and Stephen in their respective verses; and since the phrase is used not only of the divine person Christ but also the human person Stephen, one can reasonably infer that the phrase πλήρης χάριτος could, in the proper context, be used of any Christian, including Mary.

But it is not used of Mary in Lk 1:28, which is the point of my post #73. In Lk 1:28, the word κεχαριτωμένη is used to address Mary. The word κεχαριτωμένη is a form of a rare Greek verb, χαριτόω (and I say rare because a form of the verb is used only one other time in the Gr NT, at Eph 1:6). A characteristic of Gr verbs ending in -όω is that they are causative; i.e., they signify actions that effect a change concerning the person or thing that the subject affects. (Cf., e.g., δολόω (to enslave) (see 2Cor 4:2); ἐλευθερόω (to make free) (see Jn 8:32).) So χαριτόω -- which as mentioned above is a verb incorporating the radical χάρις (i.e., grace) -- means something along the lines of to effect a change by means of grace, or simply to engrace. And what greater effect of grace is there than the removal of sin?

The form of χαριτόω that appears in Lk 1:28 -- κεχαριτωμένη -- is a perfect passive participle. It is passive with respect to Mary because only God can effect a change in someone by means of his grace. And it appears in the perfect tense to indicate a change that has already occurred in the past and that has a continuing effect in the present. The essential meaning conveyed by κεχαριτωμένη in Lk 1:28 is that Mary has been -- and continues to be -- radically changed by the grace of God.

One final remark: Earlier, I made the point that one could reasonably infer from the use of phrase πλήρης χάριτος in Ac 6:8 that, in proper context, the phrase could be used of any Christian. At this point, I'd like to suggest that the same could be said of the word ἐχαρίτωσεν in Eph 1:6 -- the only other NT occurrence of a form of the verb χαριτόω. ἐχαρίτωσεν could, in proper context, be said all Christians who have been changed by the grace of God, including Mary. But Gabriel addresses Mary in a unique way at Lk 1:28 -- κεχαριτωμένη. God prepared Mary -- and Mary alone -- to be the new Garden of Eden, if you will, prepared in advance for the new Adam, just as he had prepared the original Garden of Eden in advance for the original Adam in Genesis. And he prepared Mary as this new Garden of Eden by thoroughly transforming her by his grace -- and what greater effect of grace is there than the removal of sin? -- just as he had prepared the original Garden of Eden without defect in advance for the sinless first Adam.

Peace.