[LurkingSince'98]

please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.

and please post your source for the original text so we know the provenance

AMDG

[CynicalBear]

>>please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.<<

No where in scripture is Mary described as being "full of grace". Only two people were described as "full of grace". They were Jesus and Stephen. Jerome inserted that Mary was "full of grace".

[ealgeone]

please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.

http://www.catholic.org/encyclopedia/view.php?id=6056

This is regarding the immaculate conception.

No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption, mentions also the Mother of the Redeemer. The sentence against the first parents was accompanied by the Earliest Gospel ( Proto-evangelium ), which put enmity between the serpent and the woman : "and I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she (he) shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her (his) heel" ( Genesis 3:15 ). The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically.

Next question please.

[Elsie]

please post just ONE example of how Jerome’s translation was not true to the ORIGINAL Hebrew, Aramaic, Latin or ancient Greek text.

It's kinda like Mary relics.

There ain't none; so it MUST be true!

Or, how about, "If Jeromes was SO good; why doesn't ROME use it today?"