“Which is worse.....man-made traditions multiplying because of the improvements in mechanical printing, or the adding of man-made traditions (by force or otherwise) over a much longer period of time?”
Protestantism is always worse than the truth - which is the Catholic Faith. Protestantism should always be rejected because it is man-made, a heresy of the 16th century.
“Two wrongs don’t make a right.”
The wrongs I posted were Protestant. If a Protestant believes the truth, then he has gotten something right.
“But, I can still ...by the grace of God and the ‘Sword of the Spirit’, take you to school in a Godhead debate.”
No, clearly that won’t happen. The very fact that you yourself said Protestantism is essentially man-made (”Which is worse.....man-made traditions multiplying because of the improvements in mechanical printing”) means you lost already.
The RCC position on Mary being the ‘mother of God’ is classic misinterpretation of the scriptures. And from that, your organization demands that Mary made more of God. In that position, the RCC takes the ‘trinity’ description: ‘God the Son’, to an even more unscriptural level. At least the Protestants don’t go that far.
Mary is mother to the man that “..God hath made......both Lord and Christ”. Acts 2:36. Mary didn’t make him ‘Lord and Christ’, God the Father did by dwelling in him.
By dwelling in Christ (the image of the INVISIBLE God), the invisible God could display his attributes to man, by using a perfect man. That’s John 1:1-14 in a nutshell.
**..means you lost already.**
I can answer EVERY SINGLE argument you have, in your defense of the ‘trinity’, with this simple fact: The omnipotent, omniscient, omnipresent God the Father is IN Christ. But, if you are so sure of your understanding, then answering these questions should be easy for you.
In John 14:10, when Jesus Christ said, “Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the WORDS that I speak unto you I speak NOT of myself: but the Father that DWELLETH IN ME, HE DOETH the WORKS.”, was he telling the truth?
Jesus Christ inheritted his name. From who? When? How does someone inherit something if he has ALWAYS been possessor of it?
Are you and your word two separate and distinct persons? (we are made in the image of God aren’t we?)
Who’s greater: The Son says, “My Father, which is GAVE them me, is GREATER than ALL..”. 10:29; and “..for my Father is GREATER than I..”. 14:28.
In Matt. 28:19 (“Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:..”), the greatest teacher of all gave the disciples that commandment, and they promptly went about baptizing in the name of JESUS. Now, first of all, note that he says ‘name’ in the singular, not ‘names’. ‘Son’ is a title. “thou shalt call his NAME Jesus”. Luke 1:21. Jesus Christ said that his name is not his own (John 5:43), And Heb. 1:4 says that he inheritted it. The apostles knew what they were doing when they baptized in the name of ‘Jesus’. Do you use his name in water baptism?
In John 14:26, Jesus said, “The Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the FATHER will SEND in MY NAME...”. So, what name are YOU going to use to request the coming of the Holy Ghost?
AND........don’t forget Matthew 28:18; Jesus..spake...”All power is GIVEN unto me in heaven and in Earth” (that’s pretty much everywhere, and let’s see, who GAVE it unto him?......could it be the Father that dwelleth in him, and he in the Father?).
Jesus praying to the Father (17:1), “And this is life eternal, that they might know THEE the ONLY TRUE GOD, ........AND........JESUS CHRIST, whom THOU hast SENT.” John 17:3. So, do you disagree with the Son, who declares the Father to be the “ONLY TRUE GOD”?
Or this: How does a ‘trinitarian’ explain this: “But of that day and hour knoweth....my Father only” (the 2nd and 3rd ‘persons of God’ don’t know??)?
You want the Christ to be the ‘Word’, separate and distinct from the Father, but what saith John the baptist (in the first reference), and Jesus Christ?
John 3:34,35 “For he whom God hath SENT speaketh the WORDS of God: for God GIVETH not the Spirit by measure unto him. The Father loveth the Son, and hath GIVEN ALL THINGS iinto his hand.” The Spirit, which “proceedeth from the Father” (Jesus’ words, not mine), was GIVEN to the Christ without measure; unlimited, and in every fiber of his being.
8:26 “I have many things to say and to judge of you: but he that hath SENT me is true; and I SPEAK to the world those things which I have HEARD of him.” 27 “They understood not that he spake to them of the FATHER.”
47-50 “And if any man hear my words........He that rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the last day. For I have NOT SPOKEN of MYSELF; but the FATHER which SENT me, he GAVE me a COMMANDMENT, what I should SAY, and what I should SPEAK. And I know his commandment is life everlasting: whatsoever I SPEAK therefore, even as the FATHER SAID unto ME, so I SPEAK.”
17:14 “I have given them THY WORD...”
17:17 “..THY WORD is truth”. (remember WHO the Son was talking to in John 17?)
Since sitting at a keyboard and using the computer is not a very natural element for me, here’s something you could do, and probably MUCH faster than I:
Take every passage that has the phrase ‘the Son of God’ (there are about 50 of them), and replace it with ‘God the Son’. Then post them here to show that you believe that the phrases are interchangable.