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To: aMorePerfectUnion

“Mary was his earthly mother. That doesn’t not mean she created God.”

I don’t understand how anti-Catholics can just make up straw men like that. Who here IS CLAIMING that Mary created God?

“She bore God.”

Exactly. So she is the mother of God. Women who bear children are called their mothers.

“She didn’t create God through conception.”

Again, who here IS CLAIMING that she created God?

“Jesus existed as God from all eternity.”

Well, technically, the Second Person of the Trinity existed from all eternity. Jesus (the God-man) did not exist until He was conceived in Mary’s womb.

“The verse you quote does not give Mary the title Mother of God. That is a human addition to what God said.”

But when Elizabeth calls Mary the mother of her Lord it means exactly the same thing as mother of God. There was only one Lord.


131 posted on 08/18/2015 5:29:11 AM PDT by vladimir998 (Apparently I'm still living in your head rent free. At least now it isn't empty.)
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To: vladimir998

Sure Vladimir. Whatever you claim.


141 posted on 08/18/2015 7:11:31 AM PDT by aMorePerfectUnion ( "Forward lies the crown, and onward is the goal.")
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To: All

For the good of those who would like background on the passage in Luke when blessed Elizabeth refers to Mary as the mother of my Lord.

................. quote ..................

Luke 1:43 By “Lord” Elizabeth meant Jesus, not the entire Godhead. Jesus is God, but not all of God is Jesus. Consequently the Bible never ascribes the title “Mother of God” to Mary. She was the mother of Jesus, who was Elizabeth’s Lord, since He was God.

Luke used the title “Lord” 95 times out of its 166 occurrences in the Synoptics.

“The use of kurios in narrative to refer to Jesus is distinctive of Luke.”

This title has a double meaning. It is the word the Septuagint used to translate the Hebrew “Yahweh,” and the New Testament writers used it the same way. As such, it implies deity. It also means “master” in the sense of a superior person, specifically the Messiah.

This usage does not necessarily imply that the person using it believed that Jesus was God. Elizabeth apparently meant that Jesus was the Messiah at least.

Luke evidently used the term “Lord” frequently because for Greek readers “Christ” or “Messiah” had little meaning. The pagan Gentiles referred to Caesar as “Lord” Caesar meaning that he was their divine sovereign. “Lord” had the same connotation for Luke’s original readers. Jesus is the divine sovereign for Christians.

Elizabeth considered herself unworthy that the mother of Messiah should visit her (2 Sam. 24:21; cf. 2 Sam. 6:2–11). She had done nothing to deserve this honor. Her inspired words reflect the superiority of Mary’s child over her own son.

Constable, T. (2003). Tom Constable’s Expository Notes on the Bible (Lk 1:43).


153 posted on 08/18/2015 8:23:07 AM PDT by aMorePerfectUnion ( "Forward lies the crown, and onward is the goal.")
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To: vladimir998
But when Elizabeth calls Mary the mother of her Lord it means exactly the same thing as mother of God. There was only one Lord.

Why didn't she say the "mother of her God" then vs "mother of her Lord"?

As there is one Lord, there is one God.

Elizabeth knew exactly what she meant by her statement.

You're attempting to read something into the text that's not there.

179 posted on 08/18/2015 11:28:50 AM PDT by ealgeone
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