Posted on 10/04/2017 9:00:29 AM PDT by fwdude
Why did God destroy Sodom and Gomorrah? Was the most extensive judgment found anywhere in the Bible outside of the book of Revelation actually for the sin of inhospitality, not homosexuality?
People find what they want in the Bible. If one looks hard enough, he can find "biblical" support for reincarnation, Eastern religions, Jesus as a guru, divorce for any reason, and flying saucers. Every cult of Christianity uses the Bible to validate its claims and so does some of the occult.
It's not surprising, then, that a recent trend in biblical scholarship holds that a careful reading of Genesis in its historical context offers no solid basis to conclude that the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah had anything to do with homosexuality.
(Excerpt) Read more at str.org ...
An old posting, but still highly relevant considering the hirelings infesting so many flocks.
Yeah, I think the sin was "being inhospitable".
If that were the case, then Lot and his family would have been destroyed, not Sodom.
As I’ve pointed out in the past: wanting to sexually assault people visiting your town is pretty darn inhospitable.
Was it white people?
As white as Semetic people can get.
Butt darts.
The book of Jude says otherwise. And what "historical context" are they talking about? Please provide me with any other middle eastern historical texts during the time of the patriarchs in Genesis which would provide "context" for the events at Sodom.
As the article points out, God had already decided to destroy Sodom & Gomorrah before the attempted gang-rape of the 3 visitors, so “inhospitably” or “attempted rape of angels” cannot be the reason they were destroyed. The attempted rape of the angels merely depicts how (homosexually) sex-obsessed the men of Sodom were.
The sin of Sodom was buggery ... a dedication to buggery so intense that they passed on the opportunity to gang-bang girls, while insisting on butt-raping the male visitors.
Would not the “Great Flood” be a much larger and more extensive punishment considering it took everyone out except for Noah and those on the Ark?
Not only that, but Jewish cultural values clearly delineated the immorality of homosexuality. Queers are always trying to point out the scarcity of verses condemning homosexual conduct as some type of justification for their behavior (how many times does God need to proscribe a behavior before such a condemnation “takes?”). Well, the writers didn’t HAVE to, because their condemnation of homosexual behavior was well known.
Very good point. Thank you.
[ biblical revisionist ]
Yeah, it’s a sad attempt which ignores the many Scriptures and context of same.
Ya get all sorts of stuff - people out driving in their cars when the Lord comes (slowly-they have time to pull their cars over - Max Lucado) to another guy who’s out driving in a ‘66 Mustang on a leisurely drive when the Lord shows up.
(IOW, no Tribulation/Great Tribulation)
inhospitality is what homosexuals want it to be. I was invited by two of my homosexual work mates to hear their pastor preach one day. I obliged them. He was homosexual too and there were two fascinating twisted interpretations:
1. Sodom’s sin was inhospitality.
2. in the NT it say’s it is sinful for a man to abandon women and lie with a man. They interpret that to mean it is a sin for a HETEROSEXUAL man, but not a homosexual man.
If it was not so serious it would be funny.
BTW, this was around 1994
Pretty sure the flood was a more extensive judgement.
Yeah, not quite sure how the author missed that.
Lust of the flesh.
Good pic. The sole figure should look more like Lot’s wife though (IMHO).
Obviously his 2 daughters with him.
I was kicked out of class once in college for making this point. As I walked out of the door, I said to the instructor, “Where do you think the word, “sodomy” comes from? I still got an A in the course.
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