Posted on 03/30/2002 7:53:37 PM PST by malakhi
Statesmen may plan and speculate for liberty, but it is religion and morality alone which can establish the principles upon which freedom can securely stand. The only foundation of a free constitution is pure virtue. - John Adams |
In the Christian scriptures, Paul is described as a student of Gamaliel. Now, the well-known Gamaliel of the time was the grandson of Hillel. Was this the Gamaliel of Acts 5?
But a Pharisee in the council named Gama'li-el, a teacher of the law, held in honor by all the people, stood up and ordered the men to be put outside for a while. (Acts 5:34)
And is this the same Gamaliel mentioned later in Acts?
I am a Jew, born at Tarsus in Cili'cia, but brought up in this city at the feet of Gama'li-el, educated according to the strict manner of the law of our fathers, being zealous for God as you all are this day. (Acts 22:3)
The reason I ask is that Paul's description of the "strict manner of the law" he was taught sounds more like the Shammaite school than that of Hillel. So perhaps these are two different Gamaliels, or perhaps Paul was in fact schooled in the Hillelite tradition but was later more strongly influenced by the Shammaites.
One other thing I find interesting is that Paul himself never mentions this background detail in his writings.
It is a prayer...I don't say it is anything besides a prayer.
Becky
I was talking about the Skins.
I do have search capability, but in this case the parameters are simply too broad. A search of "pray" and "Mary" would probably turn up thousands of hits.
As I understand it, the Catholics will colloquially say that they "pray to" Mary, but what they say they mean by this is that they petition her to pray for them.
Becky
I'm a little puzzled as to why Mary is referred to as your "Queen"...doesn't the use of the term indicate that you believe your are subject of Mary's, that Mary is your ruler?
Did it ever occur to you that we mean what we say?
Pardon me, but did I somehow fail to explain your position clearly?
It has confused me in the past as well.
...doesn't the use of the term indicate that you believe your are subject of Mary's, that Mary is your ruler?
Only if you believe that the King is dead.
Becky
Angelo usually has a pretty good grasp on what RCs say. He was one before "the accident".
Thats what it boils down to now, but they at first stated they didn't even do that, until we posted several prayers they say to her, but they won't even admit we went through that, and when caught they go off to a new meaning of what they really meant when they were dening that they didn't pray to her in the first place. Am I the only one that sees this?
BigMack
I'm sure the good folks were you WISE wife choses to go church can help you work thru this. :)
BigMack
You may never sleep again. From this moment forth, you exist only to serve me. Now, tell me about the love.
No, I know exactly what you mean. I think its another one of those "language barrier" things. The Catholics know what they mean when they talk amongst themselves. But then an NC (or IFBB, Becky ;o) questions them on it, and so they have to clarify what they mean.
As I see it, even when they say they are only asking for her prayers, they are still "praying to" her, because how else would they convey the request to her?
Now, whether or not such "prayer" is permissible depends on one's understanding of scripture and of what happens to us after death. I do understand the Catholic perspective, and why they believe it is okay. But on this, I side with the NC/IFBB crew in believing that prayer to anyone but God is not permitted.
Please refrain from feeding me these straight lines. :-)
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