This goading brings to mind the tactics of another:
And I sent messengers unto them, saying, I am doing a great work, so that I cannot come down: why should the work cease, whilst I leave it, and come down to you? Yet they sent unto me four times after this sort; and I answered them after the same manner. (Nehemiah 6:3-4)
But, sometimes his insolence provokes me to spend some time and energy on him.
In doing so tonite, and adding to where I had left this morning, I see than in my haste I neglected to provide links to my answer to his previous attempt to cite sarx and trōgō John 6:54–58) as denote literal consumption of physical flesh. He asserted that "The Greek sarx (physical flesh) and trōgō (chew, John 6:54–58) denote literal consumption, not metaphor," and my response to it was cut short when I noticed the time. However, once again, this was another repeat of his (4 years ago) which had been exposed, as a I posted:
Sarx is used about 15 times in the NT, including in the negative sense in "the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life" and as referring to the fallen sinful nature in Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die: but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live. (Romans 8:12-13)' Next, Four years ago he asserted:
"Trogon (τρώγω), unlike phago, has one very, specific, literal meaning: to gnaw, crunch or chew. It is a univocal term with a single meaning. "
To which I replied:
Actually the word "trogon" is used for simply eating bread, even by Judas, and by common eating even by lost souls in Noah's day!
I speak not of you all: I know whom I have chosen: but that the scripture may be fulfilled, He that eateth [trōgō] bread with me hath lifted up his heel against me.(John 13:18)
For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, (Matthew 24:38) Not only that, but since this is used in John 6:57, "As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth G5176 me, even he shall live by me," then as also said in my reply,
just how did Christ "live by the Father"? The answer is that the manner by which the Lord lived by the Father was as per Mt. 4:4: "Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God." Thus for the Lord Jesus who lived by every word of God and said were are to, (Mt. 4:4) the doing of His will was "meat."
And of course he thinks the shock and departure of carnally minded (John 6:60, 66) Jews who took the Lord's words literally, meant that this what the Lord meant, which manifests neglect of content and or ignorance of the gospel of John. In which the Lord so frequently spoke enigmatically, as His intent was to separate true seekers from the superficial, the earthly minded from the eternal and spiritual, and thus judging the former by their response and rewarding the latter.
That the saying of Esaias the prophet might be fulfilled, which he spake, Lord, who hath believed our report? and to whom hath the arm of the Lord been revealed? Therefore they could not believe, because that Esaias said again, He hath blinded their eyes, and hardened their heart; that they should not see with their eyes, nor understand with their heart, and be converted, and I should heal them. These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him. (John 12:38-41)
Thus we see many examples of the Lord speaking in an apparently physical ways in order to reveal the spiritual meaning to those who awaited the meaning, which, as elsewhere, the Lord revealed to true seekers while letting the carnally minded to their own delusions .
See a post here by me on that
Likewise the compelled cult member manifest neglect of context in 1 Co 10 and 11, in which the body of Christ is itself "one loaf," (1 Corinthians 10:17) with the Lords table being the communion (koinōnia) of that body of Christ. (1Co. 10:16)
And likewise, to eat and drink in pagan dedicatory feasts would be to "have fellowship [koinōnia] with devils," (1 Corinthians 10:20,21) which did not mean by literally consuming the incarnated flesh of such.
And in 1 Co. 11 the body of Christ is still the issue, and in which the Lord's supper proclaims that Lord's death by a communal meal with those who were bought by His sinless shed blood, being in union with their Lord and each other, thus treating each other as such, thereby effectually "remembering" (cf. 1 Co. 15:2) the Lord's death which made them one with each other.
However, their sin was that of rank hypocrisy, treating some members as lepers while they feasted, meaning that they were not discerning the Lord's body which the death of Christ purchased. (Acts 20:28)
Thus the apostle stated that they did not come together to eat the Lord's supper, and thus the solution was to was to examine themselves first, and not come hungry.
Thus the profanation of the Lord was the effectual failure to discern the Lord's body of blood bought souls, the church, as being just that. Which is why Paul warns of physical consequences (sickness, death) for it.
That is context.
Besides, consistent with selective blindness, the cult member even asserts that my page ignores John 6:53: “Unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you.” Yet as a simple word search would show, that is indeed not ignored, but as stated (more copy and paste),
John 6 creates a larger problem as first, Jn. 6:53 is an absolute “verily verily” imperative, that one must consume the body and blood of Christ in order to obtain spiritual life.
Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day. (John 6:53-54)
And which, if literal, excludes all those who reject the literalistic interpretation as unScriptural from obtaining spiritual and eternal life (contrary to Lumen Gentium) Also if literal, then we must see the Lord's Supper being preached in Acts and other places in the life of the church as the means of regeneration, that of obtaining spiritual life. But instead it is by believing the gospels that souls are saved, (Acts 15:7-9; Eph. 1:13) and nourished (1Tim. 4:6) and built up (Acts 20:32) by the hearing of it. Thus the preaching of the word, which is called "milk" (1Cor. 3:2; 1Pt. 1:22) and "meat" (Heb. 5:12,14) to feed the flock (Acts 20:28) is the primary active function of pastors. (2Tim. 4:2)
And which literal understanding is one which the apostles and NT church manifestly did not get, nor the rest of Scripture. For nowhere did the apostles preach the Lord's Supper as the, or a means to obtain spiritual life, as instead they preached that this is obtained by believing the gospel of grace.
Peter preached “To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins” (Acts 10:43) resulting in the Gentiles believing and being born again.
Referring to this, Peter stated, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe. And God, which knoweth the hearts, bare them witness, giving them the Holy Ghost, even as he did unto us; And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith. (Acts 15:7-9)
And after which souls live by Christ by obeying His words. For His words are spirit, and are life. (Jn. 6:63)
And nowhere else in Scripture was literally eating anything physically the means of obtaining spiritual and eternal life. Therefore in addition to a novel miracle explained by a novel theory, we have a novel yet essential means of obtaining spiritual life, and which to be consistent) excludes all those who cannot believe this unScriptural teaching.
However, rather than souls in Jn 6 rightly understanding the Lord's words as literal but rejecting them, instead they represent another example of carnally minded souls who are presented in John (especially) who do not seek the meaning of the Lord's enigmatic words. For we see many examples of the Lord speaking in an apparently physical way in order to reveal the spiritual meaning to those who awaited the meaning, which, as elsewhere, the Lord revealed to true seekers.
As with other words, the RC also tries to add sōma (Luke 22:19) as also denoting physical reality, even though soma it can refer to a body reckoned to be dead, (Rm. 8:10; cf. Rm. 6:11) or a spiritual body, (1Co. 15:44) as well as heavenly bodies (1 Co. 15:40) and the corporate body, the church, (1 Co. 12:15; Col. 1:18) Which parroted propaganda did not tell him of.
Then he proceeds to allege that my view nullifies the NT’s sacrificial language (Hebrews 10:10), rendering the Eucharist a hollow ritual, which is absurd, as I as I clearly stated. "Because they were presuming to show the Lord's death for the body while acting contrary to it, therefore they were eating this bread and drinking the cup of the Lord unworthily, hypocritically, and were chastised for it, some unto death." "The Corinthian's sin of " not discerning the Lord's body" was their manifest failure to do just that - recognize each other as part of the the body for whom Christ died, and show that love to each other. The result was severe chastisement - even unto death. Such examination of self and repentance is needed today, as a great transformation in this area is needed." (1Co. 11:27-32)
He next presents another argument one can only imagine is a refutation, stating, His page assert that only the apostles spoke with divine inspiration, unlike popes and councils, and that Scripture is the sole “assured infallible word.” Yet 2 Thessalonians 2:15 commands, “Hold fast to the traditions… whether by word of mouth or by letter,” placing oral tradition on par with written Scripture
What kind of refutation is this? It actually affirms what I said, though he excludes my broader scope, that "men such as the apostles could speak as wholly inspired of God, and thus indeed, this "oral tradition" was on par with written Scripture, since both were wholly inspired of God.
Therefore, rather than supporting Catholic oral tradition (which EOs somewhat differ on), it differentiates btwn wholly inspired words and those that are not, with the latter being the words of popes councills presuming to define what the word of god is. Yet the myopic hunter goes on to selectively invoke uninspired writings as if they were definitive of the NT church.
Of course, he also minimizes RC scholarship itself that attests to the canon not be settled until after the death of Luther, and again illogically reasons that the NT church must have had a settled canon in Acts 2:42 (If the canon wasn’t settled until Trent, how did the early Church function?) though none of the NT was penned yet, what they did have was the OT, evidences to be the Palestinian canon, which did not require Rome to discern it!
That is it, after hours of putting this together, now close to midnight, and as can seen, the sophists attempts to define his ecclesiastical, object of faith are actually an argument against being part of this org.
No replies to his attempts are actually needful, though I supplied this rare lengthy one for you and others, and as per Proverbs 26:5, but perhaps I will post links to previous posts where his parroted polemics were already dealt with, by the grace of God.To Him be the glory.